Probability of having at least one pair by drawing 4 shoes from 12 pairs.












6












$begingroup$


There are $12$ pairs of shoes in a cupboard. $4$ are drawn at random. What is the probability that there is at least one pair?



My first attempt: If we chose a pair at first and then draw any two at random from the rest, then there will be at least one pair.
We can choose one pair in ${12}choose 4$ ways and chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22}choose 2$ ways.
Therefore, the required probability= $frac{{12choose 4} times {22choose 2}}{{24choose 4}}$ = $frac{6}{23} =frac{42}{161}$



But the given answer is $frac{41}{161}$.



Another attempt: Each of the 4 shoes we choose, will come from one of the pairs. We can choose the four pairs in ${12choose 4}$ ways and can select a shoe from each of the pairs in $2$ ways so that no pair is obtained. Therefore, required probability =$1-$ $frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4}{{24choose 4}}$ = $frac{41}{161}$



What is wrong with the first attempt?










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$endgroup$

















    6












    $begingroup$


    There are $12$ pairs of shoes in a cupboard. $4$ are drawn at random. What is the probability that there is at least one pair?



    My first attempt: If we chose a pair at first and then draw any two at random from the rest, then there will be at least one pair.
    We can choose one pair in ${12}choose 4$ ways and chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22}choose 2$ ways.
    Therefore, the required probability= $frac{{12choose 4} times {22choose 2}}{{24choose 4}}$ = $frac{6}{23} =frac{42}{161}$



    But the given answer is $frac{41}{161}$.



    Another attempt: Each of the 4 shoes we choose, will come from one of the pairs. We can choose the four pairs in ${12choose 4}$ ways and can select a shoe from each of the pairs in $2$ ways so that no pair is obtained. Therefore, required probability =$1-$ $frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4}{{24choose 4}}$ = $frac{41}{161}$



    What is wrong with the first attempt?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      6












      6








      6


      4



      $begingroup$


      There are $12$ pairs of shoes in a cupboard. $4$ are drawn at random. What is the probability that there is at least one pair?



      My first attempt: If we chose a pair at first and then draw any two at random from the rest, then there will be at least one pair.
      We can choose one pair in ${12}choose 4$ ways and chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22}choose 2$ ways.
      Therefore, the required probability= $frac{{12choose 4} times {22choose 2}}{{24choose 4}}$ = $frac{6}{23} =frac{42}{161}$



      But the given answer is $frac{41}{161}$.



      Another attempt: Each of the 4 shoes we choose, will come from one of the pairs. We can choose the four pairs in ${12choose 4}$ ways and can select a shoe from each of the pairs in $2$ ways so that no pair is obtained. Therefore, required probability =$1-$ $frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4}{{24choose 4}}$ = $frac{41}{161}$



      What is wrong with the first attempt?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      There are $12$ pairs of shoes in a cupboard. $4$ are drawn at random. What is the probability that there is at least one pair?



      My first attempt: If we chose a pair at first and then draw any two at random from the rest, then there will be at least one pair.
      We can choose one pair in ${12}choose 4$ ways and chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22}choose 2$ ways.
      Therefore, the required probability= $frac{{12choose 4} times {22choose 2}}{{24choose 4}}$ = $frac{6}{23} =frac{42}{161}$



      But the given answer is $frac{41}{161}$.



      Another attempt: Each of the 4 shoes we choose, will come from one of the pairs. We can choose the four pairs in ${12choose 4}$ ways and can select a shoe from each of the pairs in $2$ ways so that no pair is obtained. Therefore, required probability =$1-$ $frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4}{{24choose 4}}$ = $frac{41}{161}$



      What is wrong with the first attempt?







      probability combinatorics permutations






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      edited Oct 19 '15 at 7:40







      Archisman Panigrahi

















      asked Oct 19 '15 at 7:08









      Archisman PanigrahiArchisman Panigrahi

      638620




      638620






















          6 Answers
          6






          active

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          2












          $begingroup$

          Just to build on Henry's answer, suppose we put the pairs of shoes in order, 1 through 12. By your method, you are over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times. Continuing on, you are over counting by precisely 11th triangular number, $T_{11} = 66$. Correcting for this,
          $$
          frac{12cdot {22 choose 2}-66}{24choose 4} = frac{41}{161}
          $$
          as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Please elaborate more on how the pairs are overcounted. I did not understand why I am "over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times."
            $endgroup$
            – Archisman Panigrahi
            Oct 19 '15 at 7:49



















          10












          $begingroup$

          Calculate $1$ minus the probability of the complementary event:



          The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes is:




          • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

          • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $23$ shoes

          • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $22$ shoes

          • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $21$ shoes


          The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes with no pairs is:




          • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

          • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $22$ shoes

          • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $20$ shoes

          • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $18$ shoes


          So the probability of choosing $4$ out of $24$ shoes with at least one pair is:



          $$1-frac{24cdot22cdot20cdot18}{24cdot23cdot22cdot21}$$





          Please note that I've essentially taken into account the order of the shoes.



          If I chose not to take it into account, then I would need to divide each result by $4!$.



          But since this factor appears in both the numerator and the denominator, I can ignore it.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You could also cancel out the 24's and 22's from the final fraction to simplify it. Total comes to $1 - 360/483 = 0.2547 = 25.47$%.
            $endgroup$
            – Darrel Hoffman
            Oct 19 '15 at 18:41





















          5












          $begingroup$

          Your first method may double-count the possibility of getting two pairs: when you "chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22 choose 2}$ ways", you may be choosing another pair and these two pairs are also counted when chosen in the other order.



          In your second method of looking at $1-$ the probability of choosing from different pairs, a similar method is to say that each time you choose a shoe its pair becomes undesirable, making the result $$1-frac{24}{24}times frac{22}{23}times frac{20}{22}times frac{18}{21} =frac{41}{161}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            This might be a bit late.



            I was reading Feller's vol 1 chp 4 and got into this question from a very similar exercise.



            http://www.amazon.com/Introduction-Probability-Theory-Applications-Edition/dp/0471257087





            The ways you can do it is of course various, and easiest way to think is to use



            1 - Prob(0 pairs selected)



            and this is just



            $$1 - frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4} {{24 choose 4}} $$





            The other way you are considering, of course is correct. This is from inclusion exclusion principle.



            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inclusion%E2%80%93exclusion_principle



            The way you calculation is done by:



            $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 + S_3 + - ldots $$



            where $S_1 = sum_{i=0}^n p_i$, $S_2 = sum_{i,j=0}^n p_{ij}, ldots$ and $p_i = P(A_i)$, $p_{ij} = P(A_iA_j),ldots$



            So, in this problem you are looking at:$S_1 = sum_{}p_i$ where $$p_i = frac{22choose 2}{24choose4}$$ because you are considering 2 slots are already picked, and the rest can go anywhere in the 22 shoes.



            And this has ${12choose 1}$ number of ways happening for your first 2 slots.



            Now consider $p_2$. This is calculated as



            $$p_2 = frac{20choose 0}{24choose4} $$



            This is because, once you set 2 pairs of shoes, you are left with 0 to pick from the rest 20.



            And there are ${12choose2}$ in summation for $p_2$





            In summary
            $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 = sum{}p_i - sum{}p_{ij}=frac{{12choose1}times{22choose2}-{12choose2}times{20choose0}}{24choose4}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$





















              1












              $begingroup$

              In your first counting method you have two counting stages. In the first one you have $12$ different possible results: ${P_1, P_2,ldots,P_{12}}$, where $P_i$ is a particular pair. In the second stage you would have $binom{22}{2}$ results for each result or pair of your first stage. That gives you a total of $12binom{22}{2}$ possible results. Now, let's take a loot a two different results of the first stage, say $P_1$ and $P_9$. For $P_1$ in the first stage, is possible to have $P_9$ as a result in the second stage, and for $P_9$ in the first stage, it is possible to $P_1$ in the second stage, and since the final result $P_1P_9$ is the same as $P_9P_1$, you are effectively counting two times the same result.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$





















                -1












                $begingroup$

                To select a pair, the order is irrelevant.
                1. Select one shoe
                2. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/23 = .04
                3. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/22 or chance this is pair of second = 1/21 = 1/22+1/21 = .09
                4. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/21 or of second = 1/20, or of third = 1/19 = 1/21+1/20+1/19 = .15
                After four selections, probability is .04+.09+.15=.28






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$













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                  6 Answers
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                  6 Answers
                  6






                  active

                  oldest

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                  active

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                  active

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                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  Just to build on Henry's answer, suppose we put the pairs of shoes in order, 1 through 12. By your method, you are over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times. Continuing on, you are over counting by precisely 11th triangular number, $T_{11} = 66$. Correcting for this,
                  $$
                  frac{12cdot {22 choose 2}-66}{24choose 4} = frac{41}{161}
                  $$
                  as desired.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$













                  • $begingroup$
                    Please elaborate more on how the pairs are overcounted. I did not understand why I am "over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times."
                    $endgroup$
                    – Archisman Panigrahi
                    Oct 19 '15 at 7:49
















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  Just to build on Henry's answer, suppose we put the pairs of shoes in order, 1 through 12. By your method, you are over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times. Continuing on, you are over counting by precisely 11th triangular number, $T_{11} = 66$. Correcting for this,
                  $$
                  frac{12cdot {22 choose 2}-66}{24choose 4} = frac{41}{161}
                  $$
                  as desired.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$













                  • $begingroup$
                    Please elaborate more on how the pairs are overcounted. I did not understand why I am "over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times."
                    $endgroup$
                    – Archisman Panigrahi
                    Oct 19 '15 at 7:49














                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Just to build on Henry's answer, suppose we put the pairs of shoes in order, 1 through 12. By your method, you are over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times. Continuing on, you are over counting by precisely 11th triangular number, $T_{11} = 66$. Correcting for this,
                  $$
                  frac{12cdot {22 choose 2}-66}{24choose 4} = frac{41}{161}
                  $$
                  as desired.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Just to build on Henry's answer, suppose we put the pairs of shoes in order, 1 through 12. By your method, you are over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times. Continuing on, you are over counting by precisely 11th triangular number, $T_{11} = 66$. Correcting for this,
                  $$
                  frac{12cdot {22 choose 2}-66}{24choose 4} = frac{41}{161}
                  $$
                  as desired.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Oct 19 '15 at 7:31









                  William StagnerWilliam Stagner

                  3,5981027




                  3,5981027












                  • $begingroup$
                    Please elaborate more on how the pairs are overcounted. I did not understand why I am "over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times."
                    $endgroup$
                    – Archisman Panigrahi
                    Oct 19 '15 at 7:49


















                  • $begingroup$
                    Please elaborate more on how the pairs are overcounted. I did not understand why I am "over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times."
                    $endgroup$
                    – Archisman Panigrahi
                    Oct 19 '15 at 7:49
















                  $begingroup$
                  Please elaborate more on how the pairs are overcounted. I did not understand why I am "over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times."
                  $endgroup$
                  – Archisman Panigrahi
                  Oct 19 '15 at 7:49




                  $begingroup$
                  Please elaborate more on how the pairs are overcounted. I did not understand why I am "over counting picking pair 1 and another pair 11 times. Similarly, you are over counting picking pair 2 with another pair (other than pair 1) 10 times."
                  $endgroup$
                  – Archisman Panigrahi
                  Oct 19 '15 at 7:49











                  10












                  $begingroup$

                  Calculate $1$ minus the probability of the complementary event:



                  The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes is:




                  • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

                  • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $23$ shoes

                  • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $22$ shoes

                  • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $21$ shoes


                  The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes with no pairs is:




                  • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

                  • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $22$ shoes

                  • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $20$ shoes

                  • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $18$ shoes


                  So the probability of choosing $4$ out of $24$ shoes with at least one pair is:



                  $$1-frac{24cdot22cdot20cdot18}{24cdot23cdot22cdot21}$$





                  Please note that I've essentially taken into account the order of the shoes.



                  If I chose not to take it into account, then I would need to divide each result by $4!$.



                  But since this factor appears in both the numerator and the denominator, I can ignore it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$













                  • $begingroup$
                    You could also cancel out the 24's and 22's from the final fraction to simplify it. Total comes to $1 - 360/483 = 0.2547 = 25.47$%.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Darrel Hoffman
                    Oct 19 '15 at 18:41


















                  10












                  $begingroup$

                  Calculate $1$ minus the probability of the complementary event:



                  The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes is:




                  • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

                  • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $23$ shoes

                  • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $22$ shoes

                  • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $21$ shoes


                  The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes with no pairs is:




                  • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

                  • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $22$ shoes

                  • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $20$ shoes

                  • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $18$ shoes


                  So the probability of choosing $4$ out of $24$ shoes with at least one pair is:



                  $$1-frac{24cdot22cdot20cdot18}{24cdot23cdot22cdot21}$$





                  Please note that I've essentially taken into account the order of the shoes.



                  If I chose not to take it into account, then I would need to divide each result by $4!$.



                  But since this factor appears in both the numerator and the denominator, I can ignore it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$













                  • $begingroup$
                    You could also cancel out the 24's and 22's from the final fraction to simplify it. Total comes to $1 - 360/483 = 0.2547 = 25.47$%.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Darrel Hoffman
                    Oct 19 '15 at 18:41
















                  10












                  10








                  10





                  $begingroup$

                  Calculate $1$ minus the probability of the complementary event:



                  The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes is:




                  • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

                  • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $23$ shoes

                  • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $22$ shoes

                  • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $21$ shoes


                  The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes with no pairs is:




                  • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

                  • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $22$ shoes

                  • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $20$ shoes

                  • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $18$ shoes


                  So the probability of choosing $4$ out of $24$ shoes with at least one pair is:



                  $$1-frac{24cdot22cdot20cdot18}{24cdot23cdot22cdot21}$$





                  Please note that I've essentially taken into account the order of the shoes.



                  If I chose not to take it into account, then I would need to divide each result by $4!$.



                  But since this factor appears in both the numerator and the denominator, I can ignore it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Calculate $1$ minus the probability of the complementary event:



                  The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes is:




                  • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

                  • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $23$ shoes

                  • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $22$ shoes

                  • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $21$ shoes


                  The number of ways to choose $4$ out of $24$ shoes with no pairs is:




                  • Choose the $1$st shoe out of $24$ shoes

                  • Choose the $2$nd shoe out of $22$ shoes

                  • Choose the $3$rd shoe out of $20$ shoes

                  • Choose the $4$th shoe out of $18$ shoes


                  So the probability of choosing $4$ out of $24$ shoes with at least one pair is:



                  $$1-frac{24cdot22cdot20cdot18}{24cdot23cdot22cdot21}$$





                  Please note that I've essentially taken into account the order of the shoes.



                  If I chose not to take it into account, then I would need to divide each result by $4!$.



                  But since this factor appears in both the numerator and the denominator, I can ignore it.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Oct 19 '15 at 7:28









                  barak manosbarak manos

                  37.9k74299




                  37.9k74299












                  • $begingroup$
                    You could also cancel out the 24's and 22's from the final fraction to simplify it. Total comes to $1 - 360/483 = 0.2547 = 25.47$%.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Darrel Hoffman
                    Oct 19 '15 at 18:41




















                  • $begingroup$
                    You could also cancel out the 24's and 22's from the final fraction to simplify it. Total comes to $1 - 360/483 = 0.2547 = 25.47$%.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Darrel Hoffman
                    Oct 19 '15 at 18:41


















                  $begingroup$
                  You could also cancel out the 24's and 22's from the final fraction to simplify it. Total comes to $1 - 360/483 = 0.2547 = 25.47$%.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Darrel Hoffman
                  Oct 19 '15 at 18:41






                  $begingroup$
                  You could also cancel out the 24's and 22's from the final fraction to simplify it. Total comes to $1 - 360/483 = 0.2547 = 25.47$%.
                  $endgroup$
                  – Darrel Hoffman
                  Oct 19 '15 at 18:41













                  5












                  $begingroup$

                  Your first method may double-count the possibility of getting two pairs: when you "chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22 choose 2}$ ways", you may be choosing another pair and these two pairs are also counted when chosen in the other order.



                  In your second method of looking at $1-$ the probability of choosing from different pairs, a similar method is to say that each time you choose a shoe its pair becomes undesirable, making the result $$1-frac{24}{24}times frac{22}{23}times frac{20}{22}times frac{18}{21} =frac{41}{161}.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$


















                    5












                    $begingroup$

                    Your first method may double-count the possibility of getting two pairs: when you "chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22 choose 2}$ ways", you may be choosing another pair and these two pairs are also counted when chosen in the other order.



                    In your second method of looking at $1-$ the probability of choosing from different pairs, a similar method is to say that each time you choose a shoe its pair becomes undesirable, making the result $$1-frac{24}{24}times frac{22}{23}times frac{20}{22}times frac{18}{21} =frac{41}{161}.$$






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$
















                      5












                      5








                      5





                      $begingroup$

                      Your first method may double-count the possibility of getting two pairs: when you "chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22 choose 2}$ ways", you may be choosing another pair and these two pairs are also counted when chosen in the other order.



                      In your second method of looking at $1-$ the probability of choosing from different pairs, a similar method is to say that each time you choose a shoe its pair becomes undesirable, making the result $$1-frac{24}{24}times frac{22}{23}times frac{20}{22}times frac{18}{21} =frac{41}{161}.$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      Your first method may double-count the possibility of getting two pairs: when you "chose any $2$ from the rest in ${22 choose 2}$ ways", you may be choosing another pair and these two pairs are also counted when chosen in the other order.



                      In your second method of looking at $1-$ the probability of choosing from different pairs, a similar method is to say that each time you choose a shoe its pair becomes undesirable, making the result $$1-frac{24}{24}times frac{22}{23}times frac{20}{22}times frac{18}{21} =frac{41}{161}.$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Oct 19 '15 at 8:05

























                      answered Oct 19 '15 at 7:24









                      HenryHenry

                      100k481168




                      100k481168























                          2












                          $begingroup$

                          This might be a bit late.



                          I was reading Feller's vol 1 chp 4 and got into this question from a very similar exercise.



                          http://www.amazon.com/Introduction-Probability-Theory-Applications-Edition/dp/0471257087





                          The ways you can do it is of course various, and easiest way to think is to use



                          1 - Prob(0 pairs selected)



                          and this is just



                          $$1 - frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4} {{24 choose 4}} $$





                          The other way you are considering, of course is correct. This is from inclusion exclusion principle.



                          https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inclusion%E2%80%93exclusion_principle



                          The way you calculation is done by:



                          $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 + S_3 + - ldots $$



                          where $S_1 = sum_{i=0}^n p_i$, $S_2 = sum_{i,j=0}^n p_{ij}, ldots$ and $p_i = P(A_i)$, $p_{ij} = P(A_iA_j),ldots$



                          So, in this problem you are looking at:$S_1 = sum_{}p_i$ where $$p_i = frac{22choose 2}{24choose4}$$ because you are considering 2 slots are already picked, and the rest can go anywhere in the 22 shoes.



                          And this has ${12choose 1}$ number of ways happening for your first 2 slots.



                          Now consider $p_2$. This is calculated as



                          $$p_2 = frac{20choose 0}{24choose4} $$



                          This is because, once you set 2 pairs of shoes, you are left with 0 to pick from the rest 20.



                          And there are ${12choose2}$ in summation for $p_2$





                          In summary
                          $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 = sum{}p_i - sum{}p_{ij}=frac{{12choose1}times{22choose2}-{12choose2}times{20choose0}}{24choose4}$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$


















                            2












                            $begingroup$

                            This might be a bit late.



                            I was reading Feller's vol 1 chp 4 and got into this question from a very similar exercise.



                            http://www.amazon.com/Introduction-Probability-Theory-Applications-Edition/dp/0471257087





                            The ways you can do it is of course various, and easiest way to think is to use



                            1 - Prob(0 pairs selected)



                            and this is just



                            $$1 - frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4} {{24 choose 4}} $$





                            The other way you are considering, of course is correct. This is from inclusion exclusion principle.



                            https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inclusion%E2%80%93exclusion_principle



                            The way you calculation is done by:



                            $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 + S_3 + - ldots $$



                            where $S_1 = sum_{i=0}^n p_i$, $S_2 = sum_{i,j=0}^n p_{ij}, ldots$ and $p_i = P(A_i)$, $p_{ij} = P(A_iA_j),ldots$



                            So, in this problem you are looking at:$S_1 = sum_{}p_i$ where $$p_i = frac{22choose 2}{24choose4}$$ because you are considering 2 slots are already picked, and the rest can go anywhere in the 22 shoes.



                            And this has ${12choose 1}$ number of ways happening for your first 2 slots.



                            Now consider $p_2$. This is calculated as



                            $$p_2 = frac{20choose 0}{24choose4} $$



                            This is because, once you set 2 pairs of shoes, you are left with 0 to pick from the rest 20.



                            And there are ${12choose2}$ in summation for $p_2$





                            In summary
                            $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 = sum{}p_i - sum{}p_{ij}=frac{{12choose1}times{22choose2}-{12choose2}times{20choose0}}{24choose4}$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$
















                              2












                              2








                              2





                              $begingroup$

                              This might be a bit late.



                              I was reading Feller's vol 1 chp 4 and got into this question from a very similar exercise.



                              http://www.amazon.com/Introduction-Probability-Theory-Applications-Edition/dp/0471257087





                              The ways you can do it is of course various, and easiest way to think is to use



                              1 - Prob(0 pairs selected)



                              and this is just



                              $$1 - frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4} {{24 choose 4}} $$





                              The other way you are considering, of course is correct. This is from inclusion exclusion principle.



                              https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inclusion%E2%80%93exclusion_principle



                              The way you calculation is done by:



                              $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 + S_3 + - ldots $$



                              where $S_1 = sum_{i=0}^n p_i$, $S_2 = sum_{i,j=0}^n p_{ij}, ldots$ and $p_i = P(A_i)$, $p_{ij} = P(A_iA_j),ldots$



                              So, in this problem you are looking at:$S_1 = sum_{}p_i$ where $$p_i = frac{22choose 2}{24choose4}$$ because you are considering 2 slots are already picked, and the rest can go anywhere in the 22 shoes.



                              And this has ${12choose 1}$ number of ways happening for your first 2 slots.



                              Now consider $p_2$. This is calculated as



                              $$p_2 = frac{20choose 0}{24choose4} $$



                              This is because, once you set 2 pairs of shoes, you are left with 0 to pick from the rest 20.



                              And there are ${12choose2}$ in summation for $p_2$





                              In summary
                              $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 = sum{}p_i - sum{}p_{ij}=frac{{12choose1}times{22choose2}-{12choose2}times{20choose0}}{24choose4}$$






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              This might be a bit late.



                              I was reading Feller's vol 1 chp 4 and got into this question from a very similar exercise.



                              http://www.amazon.com/Introduction-Probability-Theory-Applications-Edition/dp/0471257087





                              The ways you can do it is of course various, and easiest way to think is to use



                              1 - Prob(0 pairs selected)



                              and this is just



                              $$1 - frac{{12choose 4} times 2^4} {{24 choose 4}} $$





                              The other way you are considering, of course is correct. This is from inclusion exclusion principle.



                              https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inclusion%E2%80%93exclusion_principle



                              The way you calculation is done by:



                              $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 + S_3 + - ldots $$



                              where $S_1 = sum_{i=0}^n p_i$, $S_2 = sum_{i,j=0}^n p_{ij}, ldots$ and $p_i = P(A_i)$, $p_{ij} = P(A_iA_j),ldots$



                              So, in this problem you are looking at:$S_1 = sum_{}p_i$ where $$p_i = frac{22choose 2}{24choose4}$$ because you are considering 2 slots are already picked, and the rest can go anywhere in the 22 shoes.



                              And this has ${12choose 1}$ number of ways happening for your first 2 slots.



                              Now consider $p_2$. This is calculated as



                              $$p_2 = frac{20choose 0}{24choose4} $$



                              This is because, once you set 2 pairs of shoes, you are left with 0 to pick from the rest 20.



                              And there are ${12choose2}$ in summation for $p_2$





                              In summary
                              $$P_1 = S_1 - S_2 = sum{}p_i - sum{}p_{ij}=frac{{12choose1}times{22choose2}-{12choose2}times{20choose0}}{24choose4}$$







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Mar 11 '16 at 16:14









                              amateur_zhangamateur_zhang

                              234




                              234























                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  In your first counting method you have two counting stages. In the first one you have $12$ different possible results: ${P_1, P_2,ldots,P_{12}}$, where $P_i$ is a particular pair. In the second stage you would have $binom{22}{2}$ results for each result or pair of your first stage. That gives you a total of $12binom{22}{2}$ possible results. Now, let's take a loot a two different results of the first stage, say $P_1$ and $P_9$. For $P_1$ in the first stage, is possible to have $P_9$ as a result in the second stage, and for $P_9$ in the first stage, it is possible to $P_1$ in the second stage, and since the final result $P_1P_9$ is the same as $P_9P_1$, you are effectively counting two times the same result.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$


















                                    1












                                    $begingroup$

                                    In your first counting method you have two counting stages. In the first one you have $12$ different possible results: ${P_1, P_2,ldots,P_{12}}$, where $P_i$ is a particular pair. In the second stage you would have $binom{22}{2}$ results for each result or pair of your first stage. That gives you a total of $12binom{22}{2}$ possible results. Now, let's take a loot a two different results of the first stage, say $P_1$ and $P_9$. For $P_1$ in the first stage, is possible to have $P_9$ as a result in the second stage, and for $P_9$ in the first stage, it is possible to $P_1$ in the second stage, and since the final result $P_1P_9$ is the same as $P_9P_1$, you are effectively counting two times the same result.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$
















                                      1












                                      1








                                      1





                                      $begingroup$

                                      In your first counting method you have two counting stages. In the first one you have $12$ different possible results: ${P_1, P_2,ldots,P_{12}}$, where $P_i$ is a particular pair. In the second stage you would have $binom{22}{2}$ results for each result or pair of your first stage. That gives you a total of $12binom{22}{2}$ possible results. Now, let's take a loot a two different results of the first stage, say $P_1$ and $P_9$. For $P_1$ in the first stage, is possible to have $P_9$ as a result in the second stage, and for $P_9$ in the first stage, it is possible to $P_1$ in the second stage, and since the final result $P_1P_9$ is the same as $P_9P_1$, you are effectively counting two times the same result.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer











                                      $endgroup$



                                      In your first counting method you have two counting stages. In the first one you have $12$ different possible results: ${P_1, P_2,ldots,P_{12}}$, where $P_i$ is a particular pair. In the second stage you would have $binom{22}{2}$ results for each result or pair of your first stage. That gives you a total of $12binom{22}{2}$ possible results. Now, let's take a loot a two different results of the first stage, say $P_1$ and $P_9$. For $P_1$ in the first stage, is possible to have $P_9$ as a result in the second stage, and for $P_9$ in the first stage, it is possible to $P_1$ in the second stage, and since the final result $P_1P_9$ is the same as $P_9P_1$, you are effectively counting two times the same result.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer








                                      edited Oct 20 '15 at 13:23

























                                      answered Oct 19 '15 at 23:27









                                      Carlos MendozaCarlos Mendoza

                                      1,471518




                                      1,471518























                                          -1












                                          $begingroup$

                                          To select a pair, the order is irrelevant.
                                          1. Select one shoe
                                          2. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/23 = .04
                                          3. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/22 or chance this is pair of second = 1/21 = 1/22+1/21 = .09
                                          4. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/21 or of second = 1/20, or of third = 1/19 = 1/21+1/20+1/19 = .15
                                          After four selections, probability is .04+.09+.15=.28






                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                          $endgroup$


















                                            -1












                                            $begingroup$

                                            To select a pair, the order is irrelevant.
                                            1. Select one shoe
                                            2. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/23 = .04
                                            3. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/22 or chance this is pair of second = 1/21 = 1/22+1/21 = .09
                                            4. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/21 or of second = 1/20, or of third = 1/19 = 1/21+1/20+1/19 = .15
                                            After four selections, probability is .04+.09+.15=.28






                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                            $endgroup$
















                                              -1












                                              -1








                                              -1





                                              $begingroup$

                                              To select a pair, the order is irrelevant.
                                              1. Select one shoe
                                              2. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/23 = .04
                                              3. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/22 or chance this is pair of second = 1/21 = 1/22+1/21 = .09
                                              4. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/21 or of second = 1/20, or of third = 1/19 = 1/21+1/20+1/19 = .15
                                              After four selections, probability is .04+.09+.15=.28






                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                              $endgroup$



                                              To select a pair, the order is irrelevant.
                                              1. Select one shoe
                                              2. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/23 = .04
                                              3. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/22 or chance this is pair of second = 1/21 = 1/22+1/21 = .09
                                              4. Select one shoe - chance this is a pair of first = 1/21 or of second = 1/20, or of third = 1/19 = 1/21+1/20+1/19 = .15
                                              After four selections, probability is .04+.09+.15=.28







                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer










                                              answered Mar 31 '18 at 23:12









                                              TracyTracy

                                              1




                                              1






























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