The unit ball of $l^{1}$ is closed and has empty interior in $l^{2}$












0












$begingroup$


I know the definitions:



We say the sequence $(a_{n})$ belongs to $l^p$ if
$$left(sum_{n=1}^{infty}|a_n|^pright)^{frac 1p}<infty. $$



So, the unit ball of $l^1$, and I will denote this by $B_{1},$ is the set of all sequences $(a_n)$ satisfying $$ sum_n |a_ n|leq1.$$



To prove that $B_1$ has empty interior I think I need use the Baire's theorem, for $l^p$ is complete. So, how can I write $B_1=bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}A_n$, with $int,A_n=emptyset$?










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  • $begingroup$
    First, it should be $sum_n{|a_n|}$. Second, what you describe (with equality) is normally called the unit sphere: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_sphere; the unit ball would be $sum_n{|a_n|} le 1$. For the problem, I'd say a very direct approach to "find a $l^1$ near sequence with a norm $neq 1$" seems much easier.
    $endgroup$
    – Ingix
    Dec 12 '18 at 10:56










  • $begingroup$
    Well, as you can see from the answer below, you should have edited your question to use sphere and keep the "=", instead of of keeping ball and editing your equality to inequality. As it stands now, using the usual definition of a (closed) unit ball, it of course has an interior (all the sequences with norm < 1).
    $endgroup$
    – Ingix
    Dec 12 '18 at 11:21












  • $begingroup$
    Kavi's answer is a good place to look. The useful facts to be proved are: the unit ball $B_1$ of $l^1$ is closed in $l^2$ in the the $l^2$ topology, and has empty interior in $l^2$ in the $l^2$ topology. For the second one, you can indeed use the Baire category theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Dec 12 '18 at 12:53


















0












$begingroup$


I know the definitions:



We say the sequence $(a_{n})$ belongs to $l^p$ if
$$left(sum_{n=1}^{infty}|a_n|^pright)^{frac 1p}<infty. $$



So, the unit ball of $l^1$, and I will denote this by $B_{1},$ is the set of all sequences $(a_n)$ satisfying $$ sum_n |a_ n|leq1.$$



To prove that $B_1$ has empty interior I think I need use the Baire's theorem, for $l^p$ is complete. So, how can I write $B_1=bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}A_n$, with $int,A_n=emptyset$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    First, it should be $sum_n{|a_n|}$. Second, what you describe (with equality) is normally called the unit sphere: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_sphere; the unit ball would be $sum_n{|a_n|} le 1$. For the problem, I'd say a very direct approach to "find a $l^1$ near sequence with a norm $neq 1$" seems much easier.
    $endgroup$
    – Ingix
    Dec 12 '18 at 10:56










  • $begingroup$
    Well, as you can see from the answer below, you should have edited your question to use sphere and keep the "=", instead of of keeping ball and editing your equality to inequality. As it stands now, using the usual definition of a (closed) unit ball, it of course has an interior (all the sequences with norm < 1).
    $endgroup$
    – Ingix
    Dec 12 '18 at 11:21












  • $begingroup$
    Kavi's answer is a good place to look. The useful facts to be proved are: the unit ball $B_1$ of $l^1$ is closed in $l^2$ in the the $l^2$ topology, and has empty interior in $l^2$ in the $l^2$ topology. For the second one, you can indeed use the Baire category theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Dec 12 '18 at 12:53
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


I know the definitions:



We say the sequence $(a_{n})$ belongs to $l^p$ if
$$left(sum_{n=1}^{infty}|a_n|^pright)^{frac 1p}<infty. $$



So, the unit ball of $l^1$, and I will denote this by $B_{1},$ is the set of all sequences $(a_n)$ satisfying $$ sum_n |a_ n|leq1.$$



To prove that $B_1$ has empty interior I think I need use the Baire's theorem, for $l^p$ is complete. So, how can I write $B_1=bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}A_n$, with $int,A_n=emptyset$?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know the definitions:



We say the sequence $(a_{n})$ belongs to $l^p$ if
$$left(sum_{n=1}^{infty}|a_n|^pright)^{frac 1p}<infty. $$



So, the unit ball of $l^1$, and I will denote this by $B_{1},$ is the set of all sequences $(a_n)$ satisfying $$ sum_n |a_ n|leq1.$$



To prove that $B_1$ has empty interior I think I need use the Baire's theorem, for $l^p$ is complete. So, how can I write $B_1=bigcup_{ninmathbb{N}}A_n$, with $int,A_n=emptyset$?







general-topology metric-spaces






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edited Dec 12 '18 at 11:00







Mateus Rocha

















asked Dec 12 '18 at 10:49









Mateus RochaMateus Rocha

817117




817117












  • $begingroup$
    First, it should be $sum_n{|a_n|}$. Second, what you describe (with equality) is normally called the unit sphere: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_sphere; the unit ball would be $sum_n{|a_n|} le 1$. For the problem, I'd say a very direct approach to "find a $l^1$ near sequence with a norm $neq 1$" seems much easier.
    $endgroup$
    – Ingix
    Dec 12 '18 at 10:56










  • $begingroup$
    Well, as you can see from the answer below, you should have edited your question to use sphere and keep the "=", instead of of keeping ball and editing your equality to inequality. As it stands now, using the usual definition of a (closed) unit ball, it of course has an interior (all the sequences with norm < 1).
    $endgroup$
    – Ingix
    Dec 12 '18 at 11:21












  • $begingroup$
    Kavi's answer is a good place to look. The useful facts to be proved are: the unit ball $B_1$ of $l^1$ is closed in $l^2$ in the the $l^2$ topology, and has empty interior in $l^2$ in the $l^2$ topology. For the second one, you can indeed use the Baire category theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Dec 12 '18 at 12:53




















  • $begingroup$
    First, it should be $sum_n{|a_n|}$. Second, what you describe (with equality) is normally called the unit sphere: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_sphere; the unit ball would be $sum_n{|a_n|} le 1$. For the problem, I'd say a very direct approach to "find a $l^1$ near sequence with a norm $neq 1$" seems much easier.
    $endgroup$
    – Ingix
    Dec 12 '18 at 10:56










  • $begingroup$
    Well, as you can see from the answer below, you should have edited your question to use sphere and keep the "=", instead of of keeping ball and editing your equality to inequality. As it stands now, using the usual definition of a (closed) unit ball, it of course has an interior (all the sequences with norm < 1).
    $endgroup$
    – Ingix
    Dec 12 '18 at 11:21












  • $begingroup$
    Kavi's answer is a good place to look. The useful facts to be proved are: the unit ball $B_1$ of $l^1$ is closed in $l^2$ in the the $l^2$ topology, and has empty interior in $l^2$ in the $l^2$ topology. For the second one, you can indeed use the Baire category theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Dec 12 '18 at 12:53


















$begingroup$
First, it should be $sum_n{|a_n|}$. Second, what you describe (with equality) is normally called the unit sphere: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_sphere; the unit ball would be $sum_n{|a_n|} le 1$. For the problem, I'd say a very direct approach to "find a $l^1$ near sequence with a norm $neq 1$" seems much easier.
$endgroup$
– Ingix
Dec 12 '18 at 10:56




$begingroup$
First, it should be $sum_n{|a_n|}$. Second, what you describe (with equality) is normally called the unit sphere: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_sphere; the unit ball would be $sum_n{|a_n|} le 1$. For the problem, I'd say a very direct approach to "find a $l^1$ near sequence with a norm $neq 1$" seems much easier.
$endgroup$
– Ingix
Dec 12 '18 at 10:56












$begingroup$
Well, as you can see from the answer below, you should have edited your question to use sphere and keep the "=", instead of of keeping ball and editing your equality to inequality. As it stands now, using the usual definition of a (closed) unit ball, it of course has an interior (all the sequences with norm < 1).
$endgroup$
– Ingix
Dec 12 '18 at 11:21






$begingroup$
Well, as you can see from the answer below, you should have edited your question to use sphere and keep the "=", instead of of keeping ball and editing your equality to inequality. As it stands now, using the usual definition of a (closed) unit ball, it of course has an interior (all the sequences with norm < 1).
$endgroup$
– Ingix
Dec 12 '18 at 11:21














$begingroup$
Kavi's answer is a good place to look. The useful facts to be proved are: the unit ball $B_1$ of $l^1$ is closed in $l^2$ in the the $l^2$ topology, and has empty interior in $l^2$ in the $l^2$ topology. For the second one, you can indeed use the Baire category theorem.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 12 '18 at 12:53






$begingroup$
Kavi's answer is a good place to look. The useful facts to be proved are: the unit ball $B_1$ of $l^1$ is closed in $l^2$ in the the $l^2$ topology, and has empty interior in $l^2$ in the $l^2$ topology. For the second one, you can indeed use the Baire category theorem.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 12 '18 at 12:53












1 Answer
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I will answer the question in the title which says that the unit ball of $ell ^{1}$ has no interior in $ell ^{2}$. Suppose $(a_n)$ is an interior point. Then there exists $epsilon >0$ such that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ implies $sum |b_n| leq 1$. Choose $N$ such that $sum_{n=N}^{infty} frac 1 {n^{2}} <epsilon$ an d $sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n >1+sum |a_n|$. Let $b_n=a_n+frac 1 n$ for $n geq N$ and $b_n=a_n$ for $n <N$. Note that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ but $sum |b_n| geq sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n -sum_{n=1}^{N-1} |a_n|>1 $. So we have a contradiction.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    active

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    $begingroup$

    I will answer the question in the title which says that the unit ball of $ell ^{1}$ has no interior in $ell ^{2}$. Suppose $(a_n)$ is an interior point. Then there exists $epsilon >0$ such that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ implies $sum |b_n| leq 1$. Choose $N$ such that $sum_{n=N}^{infty} frac 1 {n^{2}} <epsilon$ an d $sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n >1+sum |a_n|$. Let $b_n=a_n+frac 1 n$ for $n geq N$ and $b_n=a_n$ for $n <N$. Note that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ but $sum |b_n| geq sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n -sum_{n=1}^{N-1} |a_n|>1 $. So we have a contradiction.






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      2












      $begingroup$

      I will answer the question in the title which says that the unit ball of $ell ^{1}$ has no interior in $ell ^{2}$. Suppose $(a_n)$ is an interior point. Then there exists $epsilon >0$ such that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ implies $sum |b_n| leq 1$. Choose $N$ such that $sum_{n=N}^{infty} frac 1 {n^{2}} <epsilon$ an d $sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n >1+sum |a_n|$. Let $b_n=a_n+frac 1 n$ for $n geq N$ and $b_n=a_n$ for $n <N$. Note that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ but $sum |b_n| geq sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n -sum_{n=1}^{N-1} |a_n|>1 $. So we have a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        I will answer the question in the title which says that the unit ball of $ell ^{1}$ has no interior in $ell ^{2}$. Suppose $(a_n)$ is an interior point. Then there exists $epsilon >0$ such that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ implies $sum |b_n| leq 1$. Choose $N$ such that $sum_{n=N}^{infty} frac 1 {n^{2}} <epsilon$ an d $sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n >1+sum |a_n|$. Let $b_n=a_n+frac 1 n$ for $n geq N$ and $b_n=a_n$ for $n <N$. Note that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ but $sum |b_n| geq sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n -sum_{n=1}^{N-1} |a_n|>1 $. So we have a contradiction.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I will answer the question in the title which says that the unit ball of $ell ^{1}$ has no interior in $ell ^{2}$. Suppose $(a_n)$ is an interior point. Then there exists $epsilon >0$ such that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ implies $sum |b_n| leq 1$. Choose $N$ such that $sum_{n=N}^{infty} frac 1 {n^{2}} <epsilon$ an d $sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n >1+sum |a_n|$. Let $b_n=a_n+frac 1 n$ for $n geq N$ and $b_n=a_n$ for $n <N$. Note that $sum |b_n-a_n|^{2} <epsilon$ but $sum |b_n| geq sum_{n=1}^{N-1} frac 1 n -sum_{n=1}^{N-1} |a_n|>1 $. So we have a contradiction.







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        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 12 '18 at 12:02









        Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

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