Finding the 10th root of a matrix
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I want to find a $2 times 2$ matrix, named $A$ in this situation, such that:
$$A^{10}=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} $$
How can I get started? I was thinking about filling $A$ with arbitrary values $a, b, c, d$ and then multiplying it by itself ten times, then setting those values equal to the given values but I quickly realized that would take too long. Is there a more efficient way?
linear-algebra matrices exponentiation matrix-equations
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I want to find a $2 times 2$ matrix, named $A$ in this situation, such that:
$$A^{10}=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} $$
How can I get started? I was thinking about filling $A$ with arbitrary values $a, b, c, d$ and then multiplying it by itself ten times, then setting those values equal to the given values but I quickly realized that would take too long. Is there a more efficient way?
linear-algebra matrices exponentiation matrix-equations
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Generalized, here as well.
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– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:23
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Here is another more general approach: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2576040/… which is proven to work here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2601508/…
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 29 '18 at 20:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I want to find a $2 times 2$ matrix, named $A$ in this situation, such that:
$$A^{10}=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} $$
How can I get started? I was thinking about filling $A$ with arbitrary values $a, b, c, d$ and then multiplying it by itself ten times, then setting those values equal to the given values but I quickly realized that would take too long. Is there a more efficient way?
linear-algebra matrices exponentiation matrix-equations
$endgroup$
I want to find a $2 times 2$ matrix, named $A$ in this situation, such that:
$$A^{10}=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 1 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} $$
How can I get started? I was thinking about filling $A$ with arbitrary values $a, b, c, d$ and then multiplying it by itself ten times, then setting those values equal to the given values but I quickly realized that would take too long. Is there a more efficient way?
linear-algebra matrices exponentiation matrix-equations
linear-algebra matrices exponentiation matrix-equations
edited Jan 29 '18 at 18:22
A Simmons
354111
354111
asked Jan 29 '18 at 8:33
fxcdfxcd
9414
9414
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Generalized, here as well.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:23
$begingroup$
Here is another more general approach: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2576040/… which is proven to work here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2601508/…
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 29 '18 at 20:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Generalized, here as well.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:23
$begingroup$
Here is another more general approach: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2576040/… which is proven to work here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2601508/…
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 29 '18 at 20:20
$begingroup$
Generalized, here as well.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:23
$begingroup$
Generalized, here as well.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:23
$begingroup$
Here is another more general approach: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2576040/… which is proven to work here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2601508/…
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 29 '18 at 20:20
$begingroup$
Here is another more general approach: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2576040/… which is proven to work here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2601508/…
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 29 '18 at 20:20
add a comment |
6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Take$$A=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}.$$Now, compute $A^2,A^3,ldots$ You'll find quickly which $x$ you should choose.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This idea can be conceived by noting that the given matrix is upper triangular, then maybe an upper triangular solution $A$ is possible, and the eigenvalues of the original matrix are $1$ and $1$, then maybe the eigenvalues of $A$ can be taken to be also $1$ and $1$ (a particular tenth root of $1$ is $1$). So if you try it out, you will succeed. A more difficult problem is to find all solutions $A$ with entries in some field (such as $mathbb{Q}$ or $mathbb{C}$).
$endgroup$
– Jeppe Stig Nielsen
Jan 29 '18 at 18:08
2
$begingroup$
@JeppeStigNielsen Indeed, that's a more difficult problem.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 29 '18 at 19:10
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(+1) This is the approach that first came to mind. Now I need to approach this slightly differently.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 30 '18 at 18:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can also consider $$A=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} + begin {bmatrix} 0 & a \ 0 & 0 end {bmatrix} =I+N $$ and try to use binomial formula for expansion of powers of a binomial.
Notice that $N^k=0$ for $k>1$.
$endgroup$
22
$begingroup$
Note that it is usually not possible to use the binomial formula for matrices, because the product is not commutative. In this case it is fine, because one of the matrices is the identity.
$endgroup$
– M.Herzkamp
Jan 29 '18 at 11:45
4
$begingroup$
@M.Herzkamp Yes, we can use the formula because matrices commute. Thank you for valuable remark..
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answers given by José Carlos Santos and Widawensen are correct. There is a more general alternative method, even through it does not work for your particular example. But I thought I'd give it anyway in case it is useful to others.
If you want the $n^{text{th}}$ root of the matrix $M$, and $M$ is diagonalizable - i.e., there exists $Q$ such that $D = Q^{-1}MQ$ is a diagonal matrix, then $D^{1/n}$ is just the matrix whose diagonal elements are those of $D$ raised to the $1/n$ power. So you can set $$A = QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}$$ and find that $$A^n = left(QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}right)^n = Qleft(D^{1/n}right)^nQ^{-1} = QDQ^{-1} = M$$
To diagonalize $M$, you find it's eigenvalues and their corresponding eigenvectors. If the eigenvectors span the entire space, then $M$ is diagonalizable, the columns of $Q$ are eigenvectors of $M$, and the diagonal elements of $D$ are the eigenvalues.
Alas, it is not applicable here: $$begin{bmatrix}1 & 1\0&1end{bmatrix}$$
is not diagonalizable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If you can figure out how exponentials of Jordan blocks work, you can use Jordan normal form instead of just diagonalization.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
Jan 30 '18 at 5:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Ok this may seem a bit overkill for this particular question, but please bear with me as it could help others.
You can use the Newton-Rhapson method, trying to solve the equation
$$f(x) = x^{10}-d=0$$
where
$$f'(x) = 10x^9$$
and $d$ is that matrix of yours and the iteration:
$${bf X_{n+1}} ={bf X_n}- f({bf X_n})f'({bf X_n})^{-1}$$
As long as you set initial $bf X_0$ to nothing too crazy, it will work. In fact, this is the simplest example of an discrete fractional integration solution, if you look at larger matrices $d$ filled with 1 on and below the diagonal and 0 otherwise (ok, transpose of the same matrix but same idea).
The fractional integral operators in fractional calculus found if guessing at the $bf X_0 = bf I$ matrix (described as linear convolutional filters, corresponding to a row in the solution matrix):

The two we recognize is the one in the middle (constant, corresponding to normal integral) and the one at the end (linear, corresponding to double integration).
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Is that supposed to be $f'(x)=10x^9$?
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– ASKASK
Jan 30 '18 at 11:52
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@ASKASK yep must have gotten an elf in my computer who ate it away ;)
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– mathreadler
Jan 30 '18 at 11:53
add a comment |
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Such a matrix $A$ will commute with $pmatrix{1&1\0&1}$, and so be of the form $pmatrix{a&b\0&a}$. This means that $a^{10}=1$ and so
$A=apmatrix{1&c\0&1}$ for some $c$. We immediately get $c=1/10$
(as long as $10$ is invertible in your field).
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add a comment |
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Hint: Another approach is to note that
$$
expleft(begin{bmatrix}0&x\0&0end{bmatrix}right)=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}
$$
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add a comment |
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6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Take$$A=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}.$$Now, compute $A^2,A^3,ldots$ You'll find quickly which $x$ you should choose.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This idea can be conceived by noting that the given matrix is upper triangular, then maybe an upper triangular solution $A$ is possible, and the eigenvalues of the original matrix are $1$ and $1$, then maybe the eigenvalues of $A$ can be taken to be also $1$ and $1$ (a particular tenth root of $1$ is $1$). So if you try it out, you will succeed. A more difficult problem is to find all solutions $A$ with entries in some field (such as $mathbb{Q}$ or $mathbb{C}$).
$endgroup$
– Jeppe Stig Nielsen
Jan 29 '18 at 18:08
2
$begingroup$
@JeppeStigNielsen Indeed, that's a more difficult problem.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 29 '18 at 19:10
$begingroup$
(+1) This is the approach that first came to mind. Now I need to approach this slightly differently.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 30 '18 at 18:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take$$A=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}.$$Now, compute $A^2,A^3,ldots$ You'll find quickly which $x$ you should choose.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This idea can be conceived by noting that the given matrix is upper triangular, then maybe an upper triangular solution $A$ is possible, and the eigenvalues of the original matrix are $1$ and $1$, then maybe the eigenvalues of $A$ can be taken to be also $1$ and $1$ (a particular tenth root of $1$ is $1$). So if you try it out, you will succeed. A more difficult problem is to find all solutions $A$ with entries in some field (such as $mathbb{Q}$ or $mathbb{C}$).
$endgroup$
– Jeppe Stig Nielsen
Jan 29 '18 at 18:08
2
$begingroup$
@JeppeStigNielsen Indeed, that's a more difficult problem.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 29 '18 at 19:10
$begingroup$
(+1) This is the approach that first came to mind. Now I need to approach this slightly differently.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 30 '18 at 18:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Take$$A=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}.$$Now, compute $A^2,A^3,ldots$ You'll find quickly which $x$ you should choose.
$endgroup$
Take$$A=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}.$$Now, compute $A^2,A^3,ldots$ You'll find quickly which $x$ you should choose.
edited Dec 26 '18 at 23:29
answered Jan 29 '18 at 8:35
José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
167k22132235
167k22132235
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This idea can be conceived by noting that the given matrix is upper triangular, then maybe an upper triangular solution $A$ is possible, and the eigenvalues of the original matrix are $1$ and $1$, then maybe the eigenvalues of $A$ can be taken to be also $1$ and $1$ (a particular tenth root of $1$ is $1$). So if you try it out, you will succeed. A more difficult problem is to find all solutions $A$ with entries in some field (such as $mathbb{Q}$ or $mathbb{C}$).
$endgroup$
– Jeppe Stig Nielsen
Jan 29 '18 at 18:08
2
$begingroup$
@JeppeStigNielsen Indeed, that's a more difficult problem.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 29 '18 at 19:10
$begingroup$
(+1) This is the approach that first came to mind. Now I need to approach this slightly differently.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 30 '18 at 18:10
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This idea can be conceived by noting that the given matrix is upper triangular, then maybe an upper triangular solution $A$ is possible, and the eigenvalues of the original matrix are $1$ and $1$, then maybe the eigenvalues of $A$ can be taken to be also $1$ and $1$ (a particular tenth root of $1$ is $1$). So if you try it out, you will succeed. A more difficult problem is to find all solutions $A$ with entries in some field (such as $mathbb{Q}$ or $mathbb{C}$).
$endgroup$
– Jeppe Stig Nielsen
Jan 29 '18 at 18:08
2
$begingroup$
@JeppeStigNielsen Indeed, that's a more difficult problem.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 29 '18 at 19:10
$begingroup$
(+1) This is the approach that first came to mind. Now I need to approach this slightly differently.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 30 '18 at 18:10
2
2
$begingroup$
Yes. This idea can be conceived by noting that the given matrix is upper triangular, then maybe an upper triangular solution $A$ is possible, and the eigenvalues of the original matrix are $1$ and $1$, then maybe the eigenvalues of $A$ can be taken to be also $1$ and $1$ (a particular tenth root of $1$ is $1$). So if you try it out, you will succeed. A more difficult problem is to find all solutions $A$ with entries in some field (such as $mathbb{Q}$ or $mathbb{C}$).
$endgroup$
– Jeppe Stig Nielsen
Jan 29 '18 at 18:08
$begingroup$
Yes. This idea can be conceived by noting that the given matrix is upper triangular, then maybe an upper triangular solution $A$ is possible, and the eigenvalues of the original matrix are $1$ and $1$, then maybe the eigenvalues of $A$ can be taken to be also $1$ and $1$ (a particular tenth root of $1$ is $1$). So if you try it out, you will succeed. A more difficult problem is to find all solutions $A$ with entries in some field (such as $mathbb{Q}$ or $mathbb{C}$).
$endgroup$
– Jeppe Stig Nielsen
Jan 29 '18 at 18:08
2
2
$begingroup$
@JeppeStigNielsen Indeed, that's a more difficult problem.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 29 '18 at 19:10
$begingroup$
@JeppeStigNielsen Indeed, that's a more difficult problem.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 29 '18 at 19:10
$begingroup$
(+1) This is the approach that first came to mind. Now I need to approach this slightly differently.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 30 '18 at 18:10
$begingroup$
(+1) This is the approach that first came to mind. Now I need to approach this slightly differently.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jan 30 '18 at 18:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can also consider $$A=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} + begin {bmatrix} 0 & a \ 0 & 0 end {bmatrix} =I+N $$ and try to use binomial formula for expansion of powers of a binomial.
Notice that $N^k=0$ for $k>1$.
$endgroup$
22
$begingroup$
Note that it is usually not possible to use the binomial formula for matrices, because the product is not commutative. In this case it is fine, because one of the matrices is the identity.
$endgroup$
– M.Herzkamp
Jan 29 '18 at 11:45
4
$begingroup$
@M.Herzkamp Yes, we can use the formula because matrices commute. Thank you for valuable remark..
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can also consider $$A=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} + begin {bmatrix} 0 & a \ 0 & 0 end {bmatrix} =I+N $$ and try to use binomial formula for expansion of powers of a binomial.
Notice that $N^k=0$ for $k>1$.
$endgroup$
22
$begingroup$
Note that it is usually not possible to use the binomial formula for matrices, because the product is not commutative. In this case it is fine, because one of the matrices is the identity.
$endgroup$
– M.Herzkamp
Jan 29 '18 at 11:45
4
$begingroup$
@M.Herzkamp Yes, we can use the formula because matrices commute. Thank you for valuable remark..
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can also consider $$A=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} + begin {bmatrix} 0 & a \ 0 & 0 end {bmatrix} =I+N $$ and try to use binomial formula for expansion of powers of a binomial.
Notice that $N^k=0$ for $k>1$.
$endgroup$
You can also consider $$A=begin {bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & 1 end {bmatrix} + begin {bmatrix} 0 & a \ 0 & 0 end {bmatrix} =I+N $$ and try to use binomial formula for expansion of powers of a binomial.
Notice that $N^k=0$ for $k>1$.
answered Jan 29 '18 at 11:13
WidawensenWidawensen
4,60821446
4,60821446
22
$begingroup$
Note that it is usually not possible to use the binomial formula for matrices, because the product is not commutative. In this case it is fine, because one of the matrices is the identity.
$endgroup$
– M.Herzkamp
Jan 29 '18 at 11:45
4
$begingroup$
@M.Herzkamp Yes, we can use the formula because matrices commute. Thank you for valuable remark..
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:49
add a comment |
22
$begingroup$
Note that it is usually not possible to use the binomial formula for matrices, because the product is not commutative. In this case it is fine, because one of the matrices is the identity.
$endgroup$
– M.Herzkamp
Jan 29 '18 at 11:45
4
$begingroup$
@M.Herzkamp Yes, we can use the formula because matrices commute. Thank you for valuable remark..
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:49
22
22
$begingroup$
Note that it is usually not possible to use the binomial formula for matrices, because the product is not commutative. In this case it is fine, because one of the matrices is the identity.
$endgroup$
– M.Herzkamp
Jan 29 '18 at 11:45
$begingroup$
Note that it is usually not possible to use the binomial formula for matrices, because the product is not commutative. In this case it is fine, because one of the matrices is the identity.
$endgroup$
– M.Herzkamp
Jan 29 '18 at 11:45
4
4
$begingroup$
@M.Herzkamp Yes, we can use the formula because matrices commute. Thank you for valuable remark..
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:49
$begingroup$
@M.Herzkamp Yes, we can use the formula because matrices commute. Thank you for valuable remark..
$endgroup$
– Widawensen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:49
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answers given by José Carlos Santos and Widawensen are correct. There is a more general alternative method, even through it does not work for your particular example. But I thought I'd give it anyway in case it is useful to others.
If you want the $n^{text{th}}$ root of the matrix $M$, and $M$ is diagonalizable - i.e., there exists $Q$ such that $D = Q^{-1}MQ$ is a diagonal matrix, then $D^{1/n}$ is just the matrix whose diagonal elements are those of $D$ raised to the $1/n$ power. So you can set $$A = QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}$$ and find that $$A^n = left(QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}right)^n = Qleft(D^{1/n}right)^nQ^{-1} = QDQ^{-1} = M$$
To diagonalize $M$, you find it's eigenvalues and their corresponding eigenvectors. If the eigenvectors span the entire space, then $M$ is diagonalizable, the columns of $Q$ are eigenvectors of $M$, and the diagonal elements of $D$ are the eigenvalues.
Alas, it is not applicable here: $$begin{bmatrix}1 & 1\0&1end{bmatrix}$$
is not diagonalizable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If you can figure out how exponentials of Jordan blocks work, you can use Jordan normal form instead of just diagonalization.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
Jan 30 '18 at 5:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answers given by José Carlos Santos and Widawensen are correct. There is a more general alternative method, even through it does not work for your particular example. But I thought I'd give it anyway in case it is useful to others.
If you want the $n^{text{th}}$ root of the matrix $M$, and $M$ is diagonalizable - i.e., there exists $Q$ such that $D = Q^{-1}MQ$ is a diagonal matrix, then $D^{1/n}$ is just the matrix whose diagonal elements are those of $D$ raised to the $1/n$ power. So you can set $$A = QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}$$ and find that $$A^n = left(QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}right)^n = Qleft(D^{1/n}right)^nQ^{-1} = QDQ^{-1} = M$$
To diagonalize $M$, you find it's eigenvalues and their corresponding eigenvectors. If the eigenvectors span the entire space, then $M$ is diagonalizable, the columns of $Q$ are eigenvectors of $M$, and the diagonal elements of $D$ are the eigenvalues.
Alas, it is not applicable here: $$begin{bmatrix}1 & 1\0&1end{bmatrix}$$
is not diagonalizable.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
If you can figure out how exponentials of Jordan blocks work, you can use Jordan normal form instead of just diagonalization.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
Jan 30 '18 at 5:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answers given by José Carlos Santos and Widawensen are correct. There is a more general alternative method, even through it does not work for your particular example. But I thought I'd give it anyway in case it is useful to others.
If you want the $n^{text{th}}$ root of the matrix $M$, and $M$ is diagonalizable - i.e., there exists $Q$ such that $D = Q^{-1}MQ$ is a diagonal matrix, then $D^{1/n}$ is just the matrix whose diagonal elements are those of $D$ raised to the $1/n$ power. So you can set $$A = QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}$$ and find that $$A^n = left(QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}right)^n = Qleft(D^{1/n}right)^nQ^{-1} = QDQ^{-1} = M$$
To diagonalize $M$, you find it's eigenvalues and their corresponding eigenvectors. If the eigenvectors span the entire space, then $M$ is diagonalizable, the columns of $Q$ are eigenvectors of $M$, and the diagonal elements of $D$ are the eigenvalues.
Alas, it is not applicable here: $$begin{bmatrix}1 & 1\0&1end{bmatrix}$$
is not diagonalizable.
$endgroup$
The answers given by José Carlos Santos and Widawensen are correct. There is a more general alternative method, even through it does not work for your particular example. But I thought I'd give it anyway in case it is useful to others.
If you want the $n^{text{th}}$ root of the matrix $M$, and $M$ is diagonalizable - i.e., there exists $Q$ such that $D = Q^{-1}MQ$ is a diagonal matrix, then $D^{1/n}$ is just the matrix whose diagonal elements are those of $D$ raised to the $1/n$ power. So you can set $$A = QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}$$ and find that $$A^n = left(QD^{1/n}Q^{-1}right)^n = Qleft(D^{1/n}right)^nQ^{-1} = QDQ^{-1} = M$$
To diagonalize $M$, you find it's eigenvalues and their corresponding eigenvectors. If the eigenvectors span the entire space, then $M$ is diagonalizable, the columns of $Q$ are eigenvectors of $M$, and the diagonal elements of $D$ are the eigenvalues.
Alas, it is not applicable here: $$begin{bmatrix}1 & 1\0&1end{bmatrix}$$
is not diagonalizable.
answered Jan 29 '18 at 18:06
Paul SinclairPaul Sinclair
20.4k21443
20.4k21443
$begingroup$
If you can figure out how exponentials of Jordan blocks work, you can use Jordan normal form instead of just diagonalization.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
Jan 30 '18 at 5:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you can figure out how exponentials of Jordan blocks work, you can use Jordan normal form instead of just diagonalization.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
Jan 30 '18 at 5:52
$begingroup$
If you can figure out how exponentials of Jordan blocks work, you can use Jordan normal form instead of just diagonalization.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
Jan 30 '18 at 5:52
$begingroup$
If you can figure out how exponentials of Jordan blocks work, you can use Jordan normal form instead of just diagonalization.
$endgroup$
– Kyle Miller
Jan 30 '18 at 5:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Ok this may seem a bit overkill for this particular question, but please bear with me as it could help others.
You can use the Newton-Rhapson method, trying to solve the equation
$$f(x) = x^{10}-d=0$$
where
$$f'(x) = 10x^9$$
and $d$ is that matrix of yours and the iteration:
$${bf X_{n+1}} ={bf X_n}- f({bf X_n})f'({bf X_n})^{-1}$$
As long as you set initial $bf X_0$ to nothing too crazy, it will work. In fact, this is the simplest example of an discrete fractional integration solution, if you look at larger matrices $d$ filled with 1 on and below the diagonal and 0 otherwise (ok, transpose of the same matrix but same idea).
The fractional integral operators in fractional calculus found if guessing at the $bf X_0 = bf I$ matrix (described as linear convolutional filters, corresponding to a row in the solution matrix):

The two we recognize is the one in the middle (constant, corresponding to normal integral) and the one at the end (linear, corresponding to double integration).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Is that supposed to be $f'(x)=10x^9$?
$endgroup$
– ASKASK
Jan 30 '18 at 11:52
$begingroup$
@ASKASK yep must have gotten an elf in my computer who ate it away ;)
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 30 '18 at 11:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Ok this may seem a bit overkill for this particular question, but please bear with me as it could help others.
You can use the Newton-Rhapson method, trying to solve the equation
$$f(x) = x^{10}-d=0$$
where
$$f'(x) = 10x^9$$
and $d$ is that matrix of yours and the iteration:
$${bf X_{n+1}} ={bf X_n}- f({bf X_n})f'({bf X_n})^{-1}$$
As long as you set initial $bf X_0$ to nothing too crazy, it will work. In fact, this is the simplest example of an discrete fractional integration solution, if you look at larger matrices $d$ filled with 1 on and below the diagonal and 0 otherwise (ok, transpose of the same matrix but same idea).
The fractional integral operators in fractional calculus found if guessing at the $bf X_0 = bf I$ matrix (described as linear convolutional filters, corresponding to a row in the solution matrix):

The two we recognize is the one in the middle (constant, corresponding to normal integral) and the one at the end (linear, corresponding to double integration).
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Is that supposed to be $f'(x)=10x^9$?
$endgroup$
– ASKASK
Jan 30 '18 at 11:52
$begingroup$
@ASKASK yep must have gotten an elf in my computer who ate it away ;)
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 30 '18 at 11:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Ok this may seem a bit overkill for this particular question, but please bear with me as it could help others.
You can use the Newton-Rhapson method, trying to solve the equation
$$f(x) = x^{10}-d=0$$
where
$$f'(x) = 10x^9$$
and $d$ is that matrix of yours and the iteration:
$${bf X_{n+1}} ={bf X_n}- f({bf X_n})f'({bf X_n})^{-1}$$
As long as you set initial $bf X_0$ to nothing too crazy, it will work. In fact, this is the simplest example of an discrete fractional integration solution, if you look at larger matrices $d$ filled with 1 on and below the diagonal and 0 otherwise (ok, transpose of the same matrix but same idea).
The fractional integral operators in fractional calculus found if guessing at the $bf X_0 = bf I$ matrix (described as linear convolutional filters, corresponding to a row in the solution matrix):

The two we recognize is the one in the middle (constant, corresponding to normal integral) and the one at the end (linear, corresponding to double integration).
$endgroup$
Ok this may seem a bit overkill for this particular question, but please bear with me as it could help others.
You can use the Newton-Rhapson method, trying to solve the equation
$$f(x) = x^{10}-d=0$$
where
$$f'(x) = 10x^9$$
and $d$ is that matrix of yours and the iteration:
$${bf X_{n+1}} ={bf X_n}- f({bf X_n})f'({bf X_n})^{-1}$$
As long as you set initial $bf X_0$ to nothing too crazy, it will work. In fact, this is the simplest example of an discrete fractional integration solution, if you look at larger matrices $d$ filled with 1 on and below the diagonal and 0 otherwise (ok, transpose of the same matrix but same idea).
The fractional integral operators in fractional calculus found if guessing at the $bf X_0 = bf I$ matrix (described as linear convolutional filters, corresponding to a row in the solution matrix):

The two we recognize is the one in the middle (constant, corresponding to normal integral) and the one at the end (linear, corresponding to double integration).
edited Jan 30 '18 at 17:40
answered Jan 29 '18 at 21:01
mathreadlermathreadler
15.1k72263
15.1k72263
$begingroup$
Is that supposed to be $f'(x)=10x^9$?
$endgroup$
– ASKASK
Jan 30 '18 at 11:52
$begingroup$
@ASKASK yep must have gotten an elf in my computer who ate it away ;)
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 30 '18 at 11:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Is that supposed to be $f'(x)=10x^9$?
$endgroup$
– ASKASK
Jan 30 '18 at 11:52
$begingroup$
@ASKASK yep must have gotten an elf in my computer who ate it away ;)
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 30 '18 at 11:53
$begingroup$
Is that supposed to be $f'(x)=10x^9$?
$endgroup$
– ASKASK
Jan 30 '18 at 11:52
$begingroup$
Is that supposed to be $f'(x)=10x^9$?
$endgroup$
– ASKASK
Jan 30 '18 at 11:52
$begingroup$
@ASKASK yep must have gotten an elf in my computer who ate it away ;)
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 30 '18 at 11:53
$begingroup$
@ASKASK yep must have gotten an elf in my computer who ate it away ;)
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 30 '18 at 11:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Such a matrix $A$ will commute with $pmatrix{1&1\0&1}$, and so be of the form $pmatrix{a&b\0&a}$. This means that $a^{10}=1$ and so
$A=apmatrix{1&c\0&1}$ for some $c$. We immediately get $c=1/10$
(as long as $10$ is invertible in your field).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Such a matrix $A$ will commute with $pmatrix{1&1\0&1}$, and so be of the form $pmatrix{a&b\0&a}$. This means that $a^{10}=1$ and so
$A=apmatrix{1&c\0&1}$ for some $c$. We immediately get $c=1/10$
(as long as $10$ is invertible in your field).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Such a matrix $A$ will commute with $pmatrix{1&1\0&1}$, and so be of the form $pmatrix{a&b\0&a}$. This means that $a^{10}=1$ and so
$A=apmatrix{1&c\0&1}$ for some $c$. We immediately get $c=1/10$
(as long as $10$ is invertible in your field).
$endgroup$
Such a matrix $A$ will commute with $pmatrix{1&1\0&1}$, and so be of the form $pmatrix{a&b\0&a}$. This means that $a^{10}=1$ and so
$A=apmatrix{1&c\0&1}$ for some $c$. We immediately get $c=1/10$
(as long as $10$ is invertible in your field).
answered Jan 30 '18 at 6:24
Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown
106k1161133
106k1161133
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Another approach is to note that
$$
expleft(begin{bmatrix}0&x\0&0end{bmatrix}right)=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Another approach is to note that
$$
expleft(begin{bmatrix}0&x\0&0end{bmatrix}right)=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Another approach is to note that
$$
expleft(begin{bmatrix}0&x\0&0end{bmatrix}right)=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}
$$
$endgroup$
Hint: Another approach is to note that
$$
expleft(begin{bmatrix}0&x\0&0end{bmatrix}right)=begin{bmatrix}1&x\0&1end{bmatrix}
$$
answered Jan 30 '18 at 18:09
robjohn♦robjohn
269k27311638
269k27311638
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Generalized, here as well.
$endgroup$
– Jyrki Lahtonen
Jan 29 '18 at 11:23
$begingroup$
Here is another more general approach: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2576040/… which is proven to work here : math.stackexchange.com/questions/2601508/…
$endgroup$
– mathreadler
Jan 29 '18 at 20:20