Subset variance order preserving function












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$begingroup$


Given a finite set with real numbers. X = {x1, x2, x3}. There can be a unique order defined for all the subsets using Variance operator.



e.g. X = {1, 2, 4}.



$$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
Var({1, 4}) > Var({1, 2, 4}) > Var({2, 4}) > Var({4}) = Var({2}) = Var({1}) = Var({}).



Is there any nontrivial function f(x) such that f(X) = {f(x1), f(x2), f(x3),...} preserve the same order?



f(x) = x and f(x) = -x would work.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are no duplicates nor order in sets. Define the variance operator of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Jan 8 at 5:51










  • $begingroup$
    the variance operator of a set is just calculate variance of all the elements inside of the set , consider, the set is finite and elements is defined in R. $$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 16:37


















0












$begingroup$


Given a finite set with real numbers. X = {x1, x2, x3}. There can be a unique order defined for all the subsets using Variance operator.



e.g. X = {1, 2, 4}.



$$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
Var({1, 4}) > Var({1, 2, 4}) > Var({2, 4}) > Var({4}) = Var({2}) = Var({1}) = Var({}).



Is there any nontrivial function f(x) such that f(X) = {f(x1), f(x2), f(x3),...} preserve the same order?



f(x) = x and f(x) = -x would work.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are no duplicates nor order in sets. Define the variance operator of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Jan 8 at 5:51










  • $begingroup$
    the variance operator of a set is just calculate variance of all the elements inside of the set , consider, the set is finite and elements is defined in R. $$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 16:37
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


Given a finite set with real numbers. X = {x1, x2, x3}. There can be a unique order defined for all the subsets using Variance operator.



e.g. X = {1, 2, 4}.



$$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
Var({1, 4}) > Var({1, 2, 4}) > Var({2, 4}) > Var({4}) = Var({2}) = Var({1}) = Var({}).



Is there any nontrivial function f(x) such that f(X) = {f(x1), f(x2), f(x3),...} preserve the same order?



f(x) = x and f(x) = -x would work.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Given a finite set with real numbers. X = {x1, x2, x3}. There can be a unique order defined for all the subsets using Variance operator.



e.g. X = {1, 2, 4}.



$$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
Var({1, 4}) > Var({1, 2, 4}) > Var({2, 4}) > Var({4}) = Var({2}) = Var({1}) = Var({}).



Is there any nontrivial function f(x) such that f(X) = {f(x1), f(x2), f(x3),...} preserve the same order?



f(x) = x and f(x) = -x would work.







order-theory transformation variance






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 8 at 16:42







yupbank

















asked Jan 8 at 4:39









yupbankyupbank

12




12








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are no duplicates nor order in sets. Define the variance operator of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Jan 8 at 5:51










  • $begingroup$
    the variance operator of a set is just calculate variance of all the elements inside of the set , consider, the set is finite and elements is defined in R. $$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 16:37
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    There are no duplicates nor order in sets. Define the variance operator of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – William Elliot
    Jan 8 at 5:51










  • $begingroup$
    the variance operator of a set is just calculate variance of all the elements inside of the set , consider, the set is finite and elements is defined in R. $$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 16:37










1




1




$begingroup$
There are no duplicates nor order in sets. Define the variance operator of a set.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Jan 8 at 5:51




$begingroup$
There are no duplicates nor order in sets. Define the variance operator of a set.
$endgroup$
– William Elliot
Jan 8 at 5:51












$begingroup$
the variance operator of a set is just calculate variance of all the elements inside of the set , consider, the set is finite and elements is defined in R. $$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
$endgroup$
– yupbank
Jan 8 at 16:37






$begingroup$
the variance operator of a set is just calculate variance of all the elements inside of the set , consider, the set is finite and elements is defined in R. $$ {displaystyle operatorname {Var} (X)={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}(x_{i}-mu )^{2},} $$ and $${displaystyle mu ={frac {1}{n}}sum _{i=1}^{n}x_{i}.}$$
$endgroup$
– yupbank
Jan 8 at 16:37












1 Answer
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$begingroup$

The singleton and empty sets are not ordered by the variance.

The variance creates a preorder.



f(x) = ax, a /= 0 and f(x) = a + x
preserve the variance preorder.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    yeah, any variance invariant transformation would do. what if f(x) itself is a discrete set mapping, is there anyway to prove the mapping is preserving order or not?
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 21:33












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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

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0












$begingroup$

The singleton and empty sets are not ordered by the variance.

The variance creates a preorder.



f(x) = ax, a /= 0 and f(x) = a + x
preserve the variance preorder.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    yeah, any variance invariant transformation would do. what if f(x) itself is a discrete set mapping, is there anyway to prove the mapping is preserving order or not?
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 21:33
















0












$begingroup$

The singleton and empty sets are not ordered by the variance.

The variance creates a preorder.



f(x) = ax, a /= 0 and f(x) = a + x
preserve the variance preorder.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    yeah, any variance invariant transformation would do. what if f(x) itself is a discrete set mapping, is there anyway to prove the mapping is preserving order or not?
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 21:33














0












0








0





$begingroup$

The singleton and empty sets are not ordered by the variance.

The variance creates a preorder.



f(x) = ax, a /= 0 and f(x) = a + x
preserve the variance preorder.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



The singleton and empty sets are not ordered by the variance.

The variance creates a preorder.



f(x) = ax, a /= 0 and f(x) = a + x
preserve the variance preorder.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 8 at 21:08









William ElliotWilliam Elliot

9,1962820




9,1962820












  • $begingroup$
    yeah, any variance invariant transformation would do. what if f(x) itself is a discrete set mapping, is there anyway to prove the mapping is preserving order or not?
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 21:33


















  • $begingroup$
    yeah, any variance invariant transformation would do. what if f(x) itself is a discrete set mapping, is there anyway to prove the mapping is preserving order or not?
    $endgroup$
    – yupbank
    Jan 8 at 21:33
















$begingroup$
yeah, any variance invariant transformation would do. what if f(x) itself is a discrete set mapping, is there anyway to prove the mapping is preserving order or not?
$endgroup$
– yupbank
Jan 8 at 21:33




$begingroup$
yeah, any variance invariant transformation would do. what if f(x) itself is a discrete set mapping, is there anyway to prove the mapping is preserving order or not?
$endgroup$
– yupbank
Jan 8 at 21:33


















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