Existence of a $C_c^{infty}$ function $Phi$ s.t. $int nabla Phi neq 0.$











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Let $Omegasubseteq mathbb R^n$ be open , bounded and connected set with $mathcal{L^n}(Omega)>0$. Let $Omega=Omega_1cupOmega_2$ where $Omega_1capOmega_2=emptyset$ with $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_1)>0$ and $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_2)>0.$ Prove that $exists$ $Phiin C_c^{infty}(Omega)$ such that $displaystyle int_{Omega_1}nablaPhi(x)dxneq 0.$




Here $Phi$ is real valued function and $C_c^{infty}(Omega)$ consists of all $C^{infty}(Omega)$ functions which have compact support in $Omega.$



I tried to show by contradiction and wished to have $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_1)=0 $ but couldn't be able to do that.



Any help is appreciated. Thank you.










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    Let $Omegasubseteq mathbb R^n$ be open , bounded and connected set with $mathcal{L^n}(Omega)>0$. Let $Omega=Omega_1cupOmega_2$ where $Omega_1capOmega_2=emptyset$ with $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_1)>0$ and $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_2)>0.$ Prove that $exists$ $Phiin C_c^{infty}(Omega)$ such that $displaystyle int_{Omega_1}nablaPhi(x)dxneq 0.$




    Here $Phi$ is real valued function and $C_c^{infty}(Omega)$ consists of all $C^{infty}(Omega)$ functions which have compact support in $Omega.$



    I tried to show by contradiction and wished to have $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_1)=0 $ but couldn't be able to do that.



    Any help is appreciated. Thank you.










    share|cite|improve this question


























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      Let $Omegasubseteq mathbb R^n$ be open , bounded and connected set with $mathcal{L^n}(Omega)>0$. Let $Omega=Omega_1cupOmega_2$ where $Omega_1capOmega_2=emptyset$ with $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_1)>0$ and $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_2)>0.$ Prove that $exists$ $Phiin C_c^{infty}(Omega)$ such that $displaystyle int_{Omega_1}nablaPhi(x)dxneq 0.$




      Here $Phi$ is real valued function and $C_c^{infty}(Omega)$ consists of all $C^{infty}(Omega)$ functions which have compact support in $Omega.$



      I tried to show by contradiction and wished to have $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_1)=0 $ but couldn't be able to do that.



      Any help is appreciated. Thank you.










      share|cite|improve this question
















      Let $Omegasubseteq mathbb R^n$ be open , bounded and connected set with $mathcal{L^n}(Omega)>0$. Let $Omega=Omega_1cupOmega_2$ where $Omega_1capOmega_2=emptyset$ with $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_1)>0$ and $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_2)>0.$ Prove that $exists$ $Phiin C_c^{infty}(Omega)$ such that $displaystyle int_{Omega_1}nablaPhi(x)dxneq 0.$




      Here $Phi$ is real valued function and $C_c^{infty}(Omega)$ consists of all $C^{infty}(Omega)$ functions which have compact support in $Omega.$



      I tried to show by contradiction and wished to have $mathcal{L^n}(Omega_1)=0 $ but couldn't be able to do that.



      Any help is appreciated. Thank you.







      lebesgue-measure smooth-functions






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      edited Nov 21 at 5:00









      Kemono Chen

      1,618330




      1,618330










      asked Nov 21 at 4:02









      nurun nesha

      9692623




      9692623






















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          Hint: Assuming $Omega_1$ and $Omega_2$ are measurable, then there exists compact set $Fsubset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(F)+varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Likewise, there exists open set $Gsupset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(G)-varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Hence $mathcal{L}^n(GcapOmega_2)$ is small.



          Then by smooth Urysohn's lemma there exists $Phi$ smooth such that $Phi equiv 1$ on $F$ and $Phiequiv 0$ on $G^c$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • If we take $Omega=(0,2)=(0,1]cup(1,2)=Omega_1 cup Omega_2$ then $G^c$ will not contain $Omega_2$
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 5:43










          • @nurunnesha Yes. I made the correction.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 5:46












          • But we need $int_{Omega_1} nabla Phi neq 0.$ So will we have to construct this $Phi$ on $Omega_1setminus F$ in such a way that $nabla Phi$ does not vanish there?
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 6:01










          • @nurunnesha Well. $Phi$ needs to transition from $1$ to $0$ so $nablaPhi$ will not be small. You could also make $F$ smaller.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 6:04











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          down vote



          accepted










          Hint: Assuming $Omega_1$ and $Omega_2$ are measurable, then there exists compact set $Fsubset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(F)+varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Likewise, there exists open set $Gsupset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(G)-varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Hence $mathcal{L}^n(GcapOmega_2)$ is small.



          Then by smooth Urysohn's lemma there exists $Phi$ smooth such that $Phi equiv 1$ on $F$ and $Phiequiv 0$ on $G^c$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • If we take $Omega=(0,2)=(0,1]cup(1,2)=Omega_1 cup Omega_2$ then $G^c$ will not contain $Omega_2$
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 5:43










          • @nurunnesha Yes. I made the correction.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 5:46












          • But we need $int_{Omega_1} nabla Phi neq 0.$ So will we have to construct this $Phi$ on $Omega_1setminus F$ in such a way that $nabla Phi$ does not vanish there?
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 6:01










          • @nurunnesha Well. $Phi$ needs to transition from $1$ to $0$ so $nablaPhi$ will not be small. You could also make $F$ smaller.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 6:04















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Hint: Assuming $Omega_1$ and $Omega_2$ are measurable, then there exists compact set $Fsubset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(F)+varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Likewise, there exists open set $Gsupset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(G)-varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Hence $mathcal{L}^n(GcapOmega_2)$ is small.



          Then by smooth Urysohn's lemma there exists $Phi$ smooth such that $Phi equiv 1$ on $F$ and $Phiequiv 0$ on $G^c$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • If we take $Omega=(0,2)=(0,1]cup(1,2)=Omega_1 cup Omega_2$ then $G^c$ will not contain $Omega_2$
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 5:43










          • @nurunnesha Yes. I made the correction.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 5:46












          • But we need $int_{Omega_1} nabla Phi neq 0.$ So will we have to construct this $Phi$ on $Omega_1setminus F$ in such a way that $nabla Phi$ does not vanish there?
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 6:01










          • @nurunnesha Well. $Phi$ needs to transition from $1$ to $0$ so $nablaPhi$ will not be small. You could also make $F$ smaller.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 6:04













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Hint: Assuming $Omega_1$ and $Omega_2$ are measurable, then there exists compact set $Fsubset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(F)+varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Likewise, there exists open set $Gsupset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(G)-varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Hence $mathcal{L}^n(GcapOmega_2)$ is small.



          Then by smooth Urysohn's lemma there exists $Phi$ smooth such that $Phi equiv 1$ on $F$ and $Phiequiv 0$ on $G^c$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Hint: Assuming $Omega_1$ and $Omega_2$ are measurable, then there exists compact set $Fsubset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(F)+varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Likewise, there exists open set $Gsupset Omega_1$ such that $mathcal{L}^n(G)-varepsilon=mathcal{L}^n(Omega_1)$. Hence $mathcal{L}^n(GcapOmega_2)$ is small.



          Then by smooth Urysohn's lemma there exists $Phi$ smooth such that $Phi equiv 1$ on $F$ and $Phiequiv 0$ on $G^c$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 21 at 5:46

























          answered Nov 21 at 5:20









          Jacky Chong

          17.3k21027




          17.3k21027












          • If we take $Omega=(0,2)=(0,1]cup(1,2)=Omega_1 cup Omega_2$ then $G^c$ will not contain $Omega_2$
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 5:43










          • @nurunnesha Yes. I made the correction.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 5:46












          • But we need $int_{Omega_1} nabla Phi neq 0.$ So will we have to construct this $Phi$ on $Omega_1setminus F$ in such a way that $nabla Phi$ does not vanish there?
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 6:01










          • @nurunnesha Well. $Phi$ needs to transition from $1$ to $0$ so $nablaPhi$ will not be small. You could also make $F$ smaller.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 6:04


















          • If we take $Omega=(0,2)=(0,1]cup(1,2)=Omega_1 cup Omega_2$ then $G^c$ will not contain $Omega_2$
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 5:43










          • @nurunnesha Yes. I made the correction.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 5:46












          • But we need $int_{Omega_1} nabla Phi neq 0.$ So will we have to construct this $Phi$ on $Omega_1setminus F$ in such a way that $nabla Phi$ does not vanish there?
            – nurun nesha
            Nov 21 at 6:01










          • @nurunnesha Well. $Phi$ needs to transition from $1$ to $0$ so $nablaPhi$ will not be small. You could also make $F$ smaller.
            – Jacky Chong
            Nov 21 at 6:04
















          If we take $Omega=(0,2)=(0,1]cup(1,2)=Omega_1 cup Omega_2$ then $G^c$ will not contain $Omega_2$
          – nurun nesha
          Nov 21 at 5:43




          If we take $Omega=(0,2)=(0,1]cup(1,2)=Omega_1 cup Omega_2$ then $G^c$ will not contain $Omega_2$
          – nurun nesha
          Nov 21 at 5:43












          @nurunnesha Yes. I made the correction.
          – Jacky Chong
          Nov 21 at 5:46






          @nurunnesha Yes. I made the correction.
          – Jacky Chong
          Nov 21 at 5:46














          But we need $int_{Omega_1} nabla Phi neq 0.$ So will we have to construct this $Phi$ on $Omega_1setminus F$ in such a way that $nabla Phi$ does not vanish there?
          – nurun nesha
          Nov 21 at 6:01




          But we need $int_{Omega_1} nabla Phi neq 0.$ So will we have to construct this $Phi$ on $Omega_1setminus F$ in such a way that $nabla Phi$ does not vanish there?
          – nurun nesha
          Nov 21 at 6:01












          @nurunnesha Well. $Phi$ needs to transition from $1$ to $0$ so $nablaPhi$ will not be small. You could also make $F$ smaller.
          – Jacky Chong
          Nov 21 at 6:04




          @nurunnesha Well. $Phi$ needs to transition from $1$ to $0$ so $nablaPhi$ will not be small. You could also make $F$ smaller.
          – Jacky Chong
          Nov 21 at 6:04


















           

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