Show that Closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary
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I'm trying to show that a closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary.
Let $A$ be a subset of a metric space $(X, d)$.
Then show that $overline A = A cup partial A$
Where $overline A$ is the closure of $A$ and $partial A$ is the boundary of $A$ and $A^o$ is the interior of $A$.
My attempt:
Let $a in overline A$. Then either $a in overline A$ $A^o$ or $a in A^o$.
$a in A^o$ part is trivial so I omit this part.
Suppose $a in overline A$ $A^o$
Since $overline A$ $A^o$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$ and all the interior points of $A$ removed, only the boundary points of $A$ are left. So $a in overline A$ $A^o$ = $partial A$ $subset A cup partial A$.
Hence $overline A subset A cup partial A$
Now suppose $a in A cup partial A$. Again $a in A$ part is trivial so I omit this part. So we consider $a in partial A$.
Then $a in partial A = overline A$ $A^o$. So $a in A cup (overline A$ $A^o)$ = $overline A$.
So $A cup partial A subset overline A$
Therefore, $overline A = A cup partial A$
Does this proof make sense?
Any comment / correction is appreciated
metric-spaces
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up vote
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I'm trying to show that a closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary.
Let $A$ be a subset of a metric space $(X, d)$.
Then show that $overline A = A cup partial A$
Where $overline A$ is the closure of $A$ and $partial A$ is the boundary of $A$ and $A^o$ is the interior of $A$.
My attempt:
Let $a in overline A$. Then either $a in overline A$ $A^o$ or $a in A^o$.
$a in A^o$ part is trivial so I omit this part.
Suppose $a in overline A$ $A^o$
Since $overline A$ $A^o$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$ and all the interior points of $A$ removed, only the boundary points of $A$ are left. So $a in overline A$ $A^o$ = $partial A$ $subset A cup partial A$.
Hence $overline A subset A cup partial A$
Now suppose $a in A cup partial A$. Again $a in A$ part is trivial so I omit this part. So we consider $a in partial A$.
Then $a in partial A = overline A$ $A^o$. So $a in A cup (overline A$ $A^o)$ = $overline A$.
So $A cup partial A subset overline A$
Therefore, $overline A = A cup partial A$
Does this proof make sense?
Any comment / correction is appreciated
metric-spaces
I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 21 at 11:58
@JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
– TUC
Nov 21 at 12:02
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I'm trying to show that a closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary.
Let $A$ be a subset of a metric space $(X, d)$.
Then show that $overline A = A cup partial A$
Where $overline A$ is the closure of $A$ and $partial A$ is the boundary of $A$ and $A^o$ is the interior of $A$.
My attempt:
Let $a in overline A$. Then either $a in overline A$ $A^o$ or $a in A^o$.
$a in A^o$ part is trivial so I omit this part.
Suppose $a in overline A$ $A^o$
Since $overline A$ $A^o$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$ and all the interior points of $A$ removed, only the boundary points of $A$ are left. So $a in overline A$ $A^o$ = $partial A$ $subset A cup partial A$.
Hence $overline A subset A cup partial A$
Now suppose $a in A cup partial A$. Again $a in A$ part is trivial so I omit this part. So we consider $a in partial A$.
Then $a in partial A = overline A$ $A^o$. So $a in A cup (overline A$ $A^o)$ = $overline A$.
So $A cup partial A subset overline A$
Therefore, $overline A = A cup partial A$
Does this proof make sense?
Any comment / correction is appreciated
metric-spaces
I'm trying to show that a closure of a set is equal to the union of the set and its boundary.
Let $A$ be a subset of a metric space $(X, d)$.
Then show that $overline A = A cup partial A$
Where $overline A$ is the closure of $A$ and $partial A$ is the boundary of $A$ and $A^o$ is the interior of $A$.
My attempt:
Let $a in overline A$. Then either $a in overline A$ $A^o$ or $a in A^o$.
$a in A^o$ part is trivial so I omit this part.
Suppose $a in overline A$ $A^o$
Since $overline A$ $A^o$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$ and all the interior points of $A$ removed, only the boundary points of $A$ are left. So $a in overline A$ $A^o$ = $partial A$ $subset A cup partial A$.
Hence $overline A subset A cup partial A$
Now suppose $a in A cup partial A$. Again $a in A$ part is trivial so I omit this part. So we consider $a in partial A$.
Then $a in partial A = overline A$ $A^o$. So $a in A cup (overline A$ $A^o)$ = $overline A$.
So $A cup partial A subset overline A$
Therefore, $overline A = A cup partial A$
Does this proof make sense?
Any comment / correction is appreciated
metric-spaces
metric-spaces
asked Nov 21 at 11:54
TUC
505
505
I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 21 at 11:58
@JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
– TUC
Nov 21 at 12:02
add a comment |
I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 21 at 11:58
@JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
– TUC
Nov 21 at 12:02
I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 21 at 11:58
I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 21 at 11:58
@JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
– TUC
Nov 21 at 12:02
@JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
– TUC
Nov 21 at 12:02
add a comment |
2 Answers
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Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.
Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
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Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.
Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.
Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.
Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.
Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.
Let $xin overline{A}$. Let $xnotin A$. Thus $xin Xsetminus Aimplies xin overline{Xsetminus A}$. Thus $xin overline{A}cap overline{Xsetminus A}=partial A$.
Again by definition $Asubset overline{A}$ and $partial Asubset overline{A}$. Hence $Acup partial Asubset overline{A}$.
answered Nov 21 at 12:07
Anupam
2,3361823
2,3361823
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.
Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.
Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.
Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.
Your proof is correct, except that you asserted that $overline Asetminusmathring A$ is the smallest closed set containing $A$. No; that would be $overline A$.
Besides, since you use twice the fact that $partial A=overline Asetminusmathring A$, I suggest that you prove this as a lemma first.
answered Nov 21 at 12:08
José Carlos Santos
141k19111207
141k19111207
add a comment |
add a comment |
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I would like to comment, but please tell me first: which definition of boundary are you using?
– José Carlos Santos
Nov 21 at 11:58
@JoséCarlosSantos Def : A point $a in X$ is a boundary point of $A$ if $forall r > 0$, $B_r (a) cap A neq emptyset$ and $B_r (a) cap A^c neq emptyset$
– TUC
Nov 21 at 12:02