Prob. 4, Sec. 27, in Munkres' TOPOLOGY, 2nd ed: Any connected metric space having more than one point is...
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Here is Prob. 4, Sec. 27, in the book Topology by James R. Munkres, 2nd edition:
Show that a connected metric space having more than one point is uncountable.
Here is a solution. Although I do understand the proof at this URL [The gist of that proof is the fact that no finite or countably infinite subset of $[0, +infty)$ can be connected in the usual space $mathbb{R}$.], I'd like to attempt the following.
My Attempt:
Let $X$ be a set having more than one point. Suppose that $(X, d)$ is a metric space such that the set $X$ is either finite or countable.
Case 1.
If $X$ is finite, then we can suppose that $X = left{ x_1, ldots, x_n right}$, where $n > 1$. Then, for each $j = 1, ldots, n$, let us put
$$ r_j colon= min left{ d left( x_i, x_j right) colon i = 1, ldots, n, i neq j right}. tag{1} $$
Then the open balls
$$ B_d left( x_j, r_j right) colon= left{ x in X colon d left( x, x_j right) < r_j right}, $$
for $j = 1, ldots, n$, are open sets in $X$.
In fact, we also have
$$ B_d left( x_j, r_j right) = left{ x_j right}, tag{2} $$
because of our choice of $r_j$ in (1) above, for each $j = 1, ldots, n$.
So a separation (also called disconnection) of $X$ is given by
$$ X = C cup D, $$
where
$$ C colon= B_d left( x_1, r_1 right) qquad mbox{ and } qquad D colon= bigcup_{j=2}^n B_d left( x_j, r_j right). $$
Thus $X$ is not connected.
Is my logic correct?
Case 2.
If $X$ is countably infinite, then suppose that $X$ has points $x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots$. That is, suppose
$$ X = left{ x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots right}. $$
Then, as in Case 1, we can show that every finite subset of $X$ having more than one points is not connected.
Am I right?
Can we show from here that $X$ is not connected?
general-topology analysis proof-verification metric-spaces connectedness
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up vote
5
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favorite
Here is Prob. 4, Sec. 27, in the book Topology by James R. Munkres, 2nd edition:
Show that a connected metric space having more than one point is uncountable.
Here is a solution. Although I do understand the proof at this URL [The gist of that proof is the fact that no finite or countably infinite subset of $[0, +infty)$ can be connected in the usual space $mathbb{R}$.], I'd like to attempt the following.
My Attempt:
Let $X$ be a set having more than one point. Suppose that $(X, d)$ is a metric space such that the set $X$ is either finite or countable.
Case 1.
If $X$ is finite, then we can suppose that $X = left{ x_1, ldots, x_n right}$, where $n > 1$. Then, for each $j = 1, ldots, n$, let us put
$$ r_j colon= min left{ d left( x_i, x_j right) colon i = 1, ldots, n, i neq j right}. tag{1} $$
Then the open balls
$$ B_d left( x_j, r_j right) colon= left{ x in X colon d left( x, x_j right) < r_j right}, $$
for $j = 1, ldots, n$, are open sets in $X$.
In fact, we also have
$$ B_d left( x_j, r_j right) = left{ x_j right}, tag{2} $$
because of our choice of $r_j$ in (1) above, for each $j = 1, ldots, n$.
So a separation (also called disconnection) of $X$ is given by
$$ X = C cup D, $$
where
$$ C colon= B_d left( x_1, r_1 right) qquad mbox{ and } qquad D colon= bigcup_{j=2}^n B_d left( x_j, r_j right). $$
Thus $X$ is not connected.
Is my logic correct?
Case 2.
If $X$ is countably infinite, then suppose that $X$ has points $x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots$. That is, suppose
$$ X = left{ x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots right}. $$
Then, as in Case 1, we can show that every finite subset of $X$ having more than one points is not connected.
Am I right?
Can we show from here that $X$ is not connected?
general-topology analysis proof-verification metric-spaces connectedness
2
I note that no one has answered your first question: yes, your logic for the finite case is correct. The biggest quibble I find is with saying "either finite or countable" when you mean "either finite or countably infinite". Afterall, finite is countable. But that is forgivable. For your case 2, the fact that finite subsets are not connected is not helpful for proving the infinite case, as Henno Brandsma indicates. For the infinite case, you will need a different proof, such as the ones already provided.
– Paul Sinclair
Oct 3 at 16:50
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
Here is Prob. 4, Sec. 27, in the book Topology by James R. Munkres, 2nd edition:
Show that a connected metric space having more than one point is uncountable.
Here is a solution. Although I do understand the proof at this URL [The gist of that proof is the fact that no finite or countably infinite subset of $[0, +infty)$ can be connected in the usual space $mathbb{R}$.], I'd like to attempt the following.
My Attempt:
Let $X$ be a set having more than one point. Suppose that $(X, d)$ is a metric space such that the set $X$ is either finite or countable.
Case 1.
If $X$ is finite, then we can suppose that $X = left{ x_1, ldots, x_n right}$, where $n > 1$. Then, for each $j = 1, ldots, n$, let us put
$$ r_j colon= min left{ d left( x_i, x_j right) colon i = 1, ldots, n, i neq j right}. tag{1} $$
Then the open balls
$$ B_d left( x_j, r_j right) colon= left{ x in X colon d left( x, x_j right) < r_j right}, $$
for $j = 1, ldots, n$, are open sets in $X$.
In fact, we also have
$$ B_d left( x_j, r_j right) = left{ x_j right}, tag{2} $$
because of our choice of $r_j$ in (1) above, for each $j = 1, ldots, n$.
So a separation (also called disconnection) of $X$ is given by
$$ X = C cup D, $$
where
$$ C colon= B_d left( x_1, r_1 right) qquad mbox{ and } qquad D colon= bigcup_{j=2}^n B_d left( x_j, r_j right). $$
Thus $X$ is not connected.
Is my logic correct?
Case 2.
If $X$ is countably infinite, then suppose that $X$ has points $x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots$. That is, suppose
$$ X = left{ x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots right}. $$
Then, as in Case 1, we can show that every finite subset of $X$ having more than one points is not connected.
Am I right?
Can we show from here that $X$ is not connected?
general-topology analysis proof-verification metric-spaces connectedness
Here is Prob. 4, Sec. 27, in the book Topology by James R. Munkres, 2nd edition:
Show that a connected metric space having more than one point is uncountable.
Here is a solution. Although I do understand the proof at this URL [The gist of that proof is the fact that no finite or countably infinite subset of $[0, +infty)$ can be connected in the usual space $mathbb{R}$.], I'd like to attempt the following.
My Attempt:
Let $X$ be a set having more than one point. Suppose that $(X, d)$ is a metric space such that the set $X$ is either finite or countable.
Case 1.
If $X$ is finite, then we can suppose that $X = left{ x_1, ldots, x_n right}$, where $n > 1$. Then, for each $j = 1, ldots, n$, let us put
$$ r_j colon= min left{ d left( x_i, x_j right) colon i = 1, ldots, n, i neq j right}. tag{1} $$
Then the open balls
$$ B_d left( x_j, r_j right) colon= left{ x in X colon d left( x, x_j right) < r_j right}, $$
for $j = 1, ldots, n$, are open sets in $X$.
In fact, we also have
$$ B_d left( x_j, r_j right) = left{ x_j right}, tag{2} $$
because of our choice of $r_j$ in (1) above, for each $j = 1, ldots, n$.
So a separation (also called disconnection) of $X$ is given by
$$ X = C cup D, $$
where
$$ C colon= B_d left( x_1, r_1 right) qquad mbox{ and } qquad D colon= bigcup_{j=2}^n B_d left( x_j, r_j right). $$
Thus $X$ is not connected.
Is my logic correct?
Case 2.
If $X$ is countably infinite, then suppose that $X$ has points $x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots$. That is, suppose
$$ X = left{ x_1, x_2, x_3, ldots right}. $$
Then, as in Case 1, we can show that every finite subset of $X$ having more than one points is not connected.
Am I right?
Can we show from here that $X$ is not connected?
general-topology analysis proof-verification metric-spaces connectedness
general-topology analysis proof-verification metric-spaces connectedness
edited Oct 3 at 11:57
Moo
5,46131020
5,46131020
asked Oct 3 at 10:58
Saaqib Mahmood
7,61742376
7,61742376
2
I note that no one has answered your first question: yes, your logic for the finite case is correct. The biggest quibble I find is with saying "either finite or countable" when you mean "either finite or countably infinite". Afterall, finite is countable. But that is forgivable. For your case 2, the fact that finite subsets are not connected is not helpful for proving the infinite case, as Henno Brandsma indicates. For the infinite case, you will need a different proof, such as the ones already provided.
– Paul Sinclair
Oct 3 at 16:50
add a comment |
2
I note that no one has answered your first question: yes, your logic for the finite case is correct. The biggest quibble I find is with saying "either finite or countable" when you mean "either finite or countably infinite". Afterall, finite is countable. But that is forgivable. For your case 2, the fact that finite subsets are not connected is not helpful for proving the infinite case, as Henno Brandsma indicates. For the infinite case, you will need a different proof, such as the ones already provided.
– Paul Sinclair
Oct 3 at 16:50
2
2
I note that no one has answered your first question: yes, your logic for the finite case is correct. The biggest quibble I find is with saying "either finite or countable" when you mean "either finite or countably infinite". Afterall, finite is countable. But that is forgivable. For your case 2, the fact that finite subsets are not connected is not helpful for proving the infinite case, as Henno Brandsma indicates. For the infinite case, you will need a different proof, such as the ones already provided.
– Paul Sinclair
Oct 3 at 16:50
I note that no one has answered your first question: yes, your logic for the finite case is correct. The biggest quibble I find is with saying "either finite or countable" when you mean "either finite or countably infinite". Afterall, finite is countable. But that is forgivable. For your case 2, the fact that finite subsets are not connected is not helpful for proving the infinite case, as Henno Brandsma indicates. For the infinite case, you will need a different proof, such as the ones already provided.
– Paul Sinclair
Oct 3 at 16:50
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
The proof in the link can actually be adapted to follow your approach.
Enumerate the distinct members of $X$ as $x_1,x_2, x_3, ldots$. Then the set
$$C colon=big{ d(x_1,x_n) colon n in mathbb{N}, n > 1 big} $$
is countable. But the set of all the real numbers in the open interval $left( 0, d left(x_1, x_2 right) right)$ is uncountable. So there exists some real number $r$ such that
$$ 0 < dleft(x_1, x_2 right) < r,$$ and also $rnotin C$.
Therefore the sets
$$ B_d left(x_1, rright) colon= left{ x in X colon d left(x, x_1 right) < r right} $$ and
$$ left{ yin X colon dleft( x_1,y right) > r right}$$ form a separation of $X$, meaning that $X$ is disconnected.
+1 for actually answering the real question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 5 at 10:18
@user1551 I've made some edits to your post. Do you agree with these?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:41
add a comment |
up vote
14
down vote
Here is an argument that does not require Urysohn's Lemma: fix $x in X$ and define $f(y)=d(x,y)$. Then $f:X to [0,infty)$ is continuous, $f(x)=0$ and $f(y) >0$ for some $y$. Since the range is an interval it is uncountable and so is $X$.
For the record, this is pretty much the same as the other answer, but providing an explicit function $f$.
– Wojowu
Oct 3 at 13:25
This is the proof that appears at the link given in the question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 3 at 13:42
@KaviRamaMurthy how are you? Can we connect using phone, email, or WhatsApp?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:58
@KaviRamaMurthy the range is not necessarily the whole of the interval $[0, +infty)$.
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 8:00
add a comment |
up vote
9
down vote
Assume distinct $a,b$. By Urysohn's theorem there is a continuous $f:X to [0,1]$, with $f(a) = 0$, $f(b) = 1$. Since $X$ is connected, so is $f(X)$. Thus $f(X) = [0,1]$. Whence $X$ cannot be countable.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
You are just using $T_2$-ness of metric spaces to show finite ones are disconnected.
But there are $T_2$ spaces (even $T_3$) that are countable and connected, so
the last step cannot work based purely on case 1. You need to really use the metric (or normality) etc. to get the disconnectedness.
add a comment |
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
The proof in the link can actually be adapted to follow your approach.
Enumerate the distinct members of $X$ as $x_1,x_2, x_3, ldots$. Then the set
$$C colon=big{ d(x_1,x_n) colon n in mathbb{N}, n > 1 big} $$
is countable. But the set of all the real numbers in the open interval $left( 0, d left(x_1, x_2 right) right)$ is uncountable. So there exists some real number $r$ such that
$$ 0 < dleft(x_1, x_2 right) < r,$$ and also $rnotin C$.
Therefore the sets
$$ B_d left(x_1, rright) colon= left{ x in X colon d left(x, x_1 right) < r right} $$ and
$$ left{ yin X colon dleft( x_1,y right) > r right}$$ form a separation of $X$, meaning that $X$ is disconnected.
+1 for actually answering the real question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 5 at 10:18
@user1551 I've made some edits to your post. Do you agree with these?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:41
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
The proof in the link can actually be adapted to follow your approach.
Enumerate the distinct members of $X$ as $x_1,x_2, x_3, ldots$. Then the set
$$C colon=big{ d(x_1,x_n) colon n in mathbb{N}, n > 1 big} $$
is countable. But the set of all the real numbers in the open interval $left( 0, d left(x_1, x_2 right) right)$ is uncountable. So there exists some real number $r$ such that
$$ 0 < dleft(x_1, x_2 right) < r,$$ and also $rnotin C$.
Therefore the sets
$$ B_d left(x_1, rright) colon= left{ x in X colon d left(x, x_1 right) < r right} $$ and
$$ left{ yin X colon dleft( x_1,y right) > r right}$$ form a separation of $X$, meaning that $X$ is disconnected.
+1 for actually answering the real question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 5 at 10:18
@user1551 I've made some edits to your post. Do you agree with these?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:41
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
up vote
4
down vote
accepted
The proof in the link can actually be adapted to follow your approach.
Enumerate the distinct members of $X$ as $x_1,x_2, x_3, ldots$. Then the set
$$C colon=big{ d(x_1,x_n) colon n in mathbb{N}, n > 1 big} $$
is countable. But the set of all the real numbers in the open interval $left( 0, d left(x_1, x_2 right) right)$ is uncountable. So there exists some real number $r$ such that
$$ 0 < dleft(x_1, x_2 right) < r,$$ and also $rnotin C$.
Therefore the sets
$$ B_d left(x_1, rright) colon= left{ x in X colon d left(x, x_1 right) < r right} $$ and
$$ left{ yin X colon dleft( x_1,y right) > r right}$$ form a separation of $X$, meaning that $X$ is disconnected.
The proof in the link can actually be adapted to follow your approach.
Enumerate the distinct members of $X$ as $x_1,x_2, x_3, ldots$. Then the set
$$C colon=big{ d(x_1,x_n) colon n in mathbb{N}, n > 1 big} $$
is countable. But the set of all the real numbers in the open interval $left( 0, d left(x_1, x_2 right) right)$ is uncountable. So there exists some real number $r$ such that
$$ 0 < dleft(x_1, x_2 right) < r,$$ and also $rnotin C$.
Therefore the sets
$$ B_d left(x_1, rright) colon= left{ x in X colon d left(x, x_1 right) < r right} $$ and
$$ left{ yin X colon dleft( x_1,y right) > r right}$$ form a separation of $X$, meaning that $X$ is disconnected.
edited Nov 25 at 7:40
Saaqib Mahmood
7,61742376
7,61742376
answered Oct 3 at 14:32
user1551
71k566125
71k566125
+1 for actually answering the real question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 5 at 10:18
@user1551 I've made some edits to your post. Do you agree with these?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:41
add a comment |
+1 for actually answering the real question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 5 at 10:18
@user1551 I've made some edits to your post. Do you agree with these?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:41
+1 for actually answering the real question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 5 at 10:18
+1 for actually answering the real question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 5 at 10:18
@user1551 I've made some edits to your post. Do you agree with these?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:41
@user1551 I've made some edits to your post. Do you agree with these?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:41
add a comment |
up vote
14
down vote
Here is an argument that does not require Urysohn's Lemma: fix $x in X$ and define $f(y)=d(x,y)$. Then $f:X to [0,infty)$ is continuous, $f(x)=0$ and $f(y) >0$ for some $y$. Since the range is an interval it is uncountable and so is $X$.
For the record, this is pretty much the same as the other answer, but providing an explicit function $f$.
– Wojowu
Oct 3 at 13:25
This is the proof that appears at the link given in the question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 3 at 13:42
@KaviRamaMurthy how are you? Can we connect using phone, email, or WhatsApp?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:58
@KaviRamaMurthy the range is not necessarily the whole of the interval $[0, +infty)$.
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 8:00
add a comment |
up vote
14
down vote
Here is an argument that does not require Urysohn's Lemma: fix $x in X$ and define $f(y)=d(x,y)$. Then $f:X to [0,infty)$ is continuous, $f(x)=0$ and $f(y) >0$ for some $y$. Since the range is an interval it is uncountable and so is $X$.
For the record, this is pretty much the same as the other answer, but providing an explicit function $f$.
– Wojowu
Oct 3 at 13:25
This is the proof that appears at the link given in the question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 3 at 13:42
@KaviRamaMurthy how are you? Can we connect using phone, email, or WhatsApp?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:58
@KaviRamaMurthy the range is not necessarily the whole of the interval $[0, +infty)$.
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 8:00
add a comment |
up vote
14
down vote
up vote
14
down vote
Here is an argument that does not require Urysohn's Lemma: fix $x in X$ and define $f(y)=d(x,y)$. Then $f:X to [0,infty)$ is continuous, $f(x)=0$ and $f(y) >0$ for some $y$. Since the range is an interval it is uncountable and so is $X$.
Here is an argument that does not require Urysohn's Lemma: fix $x in X$ and define $f(y)=d(x,y)$. Then $f:X to [0,infty)$ is continuous, $f(x)=0$ and $f(y) >0$ for some $y$. Since the range is an interval it is uncountable and so is $X$.
answered Oct 3 at 11:53
Kavi Rama Murthy
45.8k31853
45.8k31853
For the record, this is pretty much the same as the other answer, but providing an explicit function $f$.
– Wojowu
Oct 3 at 13:25
This is the proof that appears at the link given in the question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 3 at 13:42
@KaviRamaMurthy how are you? Can we connect using phone, email, or WhatsApp?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:58
@KaviRamaMurthy the range is not necessarily the whole of the interval $[0, +infty)$.
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 8:00
add a comment |
For the record, this is pretty much the same as the other answer, but providing an explicit function $f$.
– Wojowu
Oct 3 at 13:25
This is the proof that appears at the link given in the question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 3 at 13:42
@KaviRamaMurthy how are you? Can we connect using phone, email, or WhatsApp?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:58
@KaviRamaMurthy the range is not necessarily the whole of the interval $[0, +infty)$.
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 8:00
For the record, this is pretty much the same as the other answer, but providing an explicit function $f$.
– Wojowu
Oct 3 at 13:25
For the record, this is pretty much the same as the other answer, but providing an explicit function $f$.
– Wojowu
Oct 3 at 13:25
This is the proof that appears at the link given in the question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 3 at 13:42
This is the proof that appears at the link given in the question.
– Arnaud D.
Oct 3 at 13:42
@KaviRamaMurthy how are you? Can we connect using phone, email, or WhatsApp?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:58
@KaviRamaMurthy how are you? Can we connect using phone, email, or WhatsApp?
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 7:58
@KaviRamaMurthy the range is not necessarily the whole of the interval $[0, +infty)$.
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 8:00
@KaviRamaMurthy the range is not necessarily the whole of the interval $[0, +infty)$.
– Saaqib Mahmood
Nov 25 at 8:00
add a comment |
up vote
9
down vote
Assume distinct $a,b$. By Urysohn's theorem there is a continuous $f:X to [0,1]$, with $f(a) = 0$, $f(b) = 1$. Since $X$ is connected, so is $f(X)$. Thus $f(X) = [0,1]$. Whence $X$ cannot be countable.
add a comment |
up vote
9
down vote
Assume distinct $a,b$. By Urysohn's theorem there is a continuous $f:X to [0,1]$, with $f(a) = 0$, $f(b) = 1$. Since $X$ is connected, so is $f(X)$. Thus $f(X) = [0,1]$. Whence $X$ cannot be countable.
add a comment |
up vote
9
down vote
up vote
9
down vote
Assume distinct $a,b$. By Urysohn's theorem there is a continuous $f:X to [0,1]$, with $f(a) = 0$, $f(b) = 1$. Since $X$ is connected, so is $f(X)$. Thus $f(X) = [0,1]$. Whence $X$ cannot be countable.
Assume distinct $a,b$. By Urysohn's theorem there is a continuous $f:X to [0,1]$, with $f(a) = 0$, $f(b) = 1$. Since $X$ is connected, so is $f(X)$. Thus $f(X) = [0,1]$. Whence $X$ cannot be countable.
edited Oct 3 at 17:36
AccidentalFourierTransform
1,427827
1,427827
answered Oct 3 at 11:16
William Elliot
6,9622518
6,9622518
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
You are just using $T_2$-ness of metric spaces to show finite ones are disconnected.
But there are $T_2$ spaces (even $T_3$) that are countable and connected, so
the last step cannot work based purely on case 1. You need to really use the metric (or normality) etc. to get the disconnectedness.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
You are just using $T_2$-ness of metric spaces to show finite ones are disconnected.
But there are $T_2$ spaces (even $T_3$) that are countable and connected, so
the last step cannot work based purely on case 1. You need to really use the metric (or normality) etc. to get the disconnectedness.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
You are just using $T_2$-ness of metric spaces to show finite ones are disconnected.
But there are $T_2$ spaces (even $T_3$) that are countable and connected, so
the last step cannot work based purely on case 1. You need to really use the metric (or normality) etc. to get the disconnectedness.
You are just using $T_2$-ness of metric spaces to show finite ones are disconnected.
But there are $T_2$ spaces (even $T_3$) that are countable and connected, so
the last step cannot work based purely on case 1. You need to really use the metric (or normality) etc. to get the disconnectedness.
answered Oct 3 at 16:34
Henno Brandsma
103k345112
103k345112
add a comment |
add a comment |
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2
I note that no one has answered your first question: yes, your logic for the finite case is correct. The biggest quibble I find is with saying "either finite or countable" when you mean "either finite or countably infinite". Afterall, finite is countable. But that is forgivable. For your case 2, the fact that finite subsets are not connected is not helpful for proving the infinite case, as Henno Brandsma indicates. For the infinite case, you will need a different proof, such as the ones already provided.
– Paul Sinclair
Oct 3 at 16:50