Why $P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0 text{ ,} P^mutext{-a.s. on...












1














For any progressively measurable process $X$ and any optional time $S$ of ${mathcal{F}_t}$ why do we have that
$$P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0 text{ ,} P^mutext{-a.s. on } {S=infty}$$



This is remark $2.6.4$ in Section 2.6 of Karatzas and Shreve's Brownian Motion and stochastic Calculus



The author mentions at the beginning of the remark that ${X_{S+t} in Gamma }:= {X_{S+t} in Gamma,S<infty }$.
enter image description here



Now since $S$ is an ${mathcal{F}_t}$ optional time, $S$ is $ mathcal{F}_{S+}$ measurable
So we can write
begin{equation}
begin{split}
P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}] 1_{{S=infty}}=E^mu[1_{{X_{S+t} in Gamma}} 1_{{S=infty}} mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=E^mu[1_{{X_{S+t} in Gamma,S<infty}}} 1_{{S=infty}} mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]\=0
end{split}
end{equation}

since the product of the two indicators functions is zero everywhere



Is this reasoning correct? If not , could you tell me what is problem. Furthermore how could I show that $P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0$ on ${S=infty }$. Where is the progressive measurability of $X$ being used?










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    1














    For any progressively measurable process $X$ and any optional time $S$ of ${mathcal{F}_t}$ why do we have that
    $$P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0 text{ ,} P^mutext{-a.s. on } {S=infty}$$



    This is remark $2.6.4$ in Section 2.6 of Karatzas and Shreve's Brownian Motion and stochastic Calculus



    The author mentions at the beginning of the remark that ${X_{S+t} in Gamma }:= {X_{S+t} in Gamma,S<infty }$.
    enter image description here



    Now since $S$ is an ${mathcal{F}_t}$ optional time, $S$ is $ mathcal{F}_{S+}$ measurable
    So we can write
    begin{equation}
    begin{split}
    P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}] 1_{{S=infty}}=E^mu[1_{{X_{S+t} in Gamma}} 1_{{S=infty}} mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=E^mu[1_{{X_{S+t} in Gamma,S<infty}}} 1_{{S=infty}} mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]\=0
    end{split}
    end{equation}

    since the product of the two indicators functions is zero everywhere



    Is this reasoning correct? If not , could you tell me what is problem. Furthermore how could I show that $P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0$ on ${S=infty }$. Where is the progressive measurability of $X$ being used?










    share|cite|improve this question

























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      For any progressively measurable process $X$ and any optional time $S$ of ${mathcal{F}_t}$ why do we have that
      $$P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0 text{ ,} P^mutext{-a.s. on } {S=infty}$$



      This is remark $2.6.4$ in Section 2.6 of Karatzas and Shreve's Brownian Motion and stochastic Calculus



      The author mentions at the beginning of the remark that ${X_{S+t} in Gamma }:= {X_{S+t} in Gamma,S<infty }$.
      enter image description here



      Now since $S$ is an ${mathcal{F}_t}$ optional time, $S$ is $ mathcal{F}_{S+}$ measurable
      So we can write
      begin{equation}
      begin{split}
      P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}] 1_{{S=infty}}=E^mu[1_{{X_{S+t} in Gamma}} 1_{{S=infty}} mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=E^mu[1_{{X_{S+t} in Gamma,S<infty}}} 1_{{S=infty}} mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]\=0
      end{split}
      end{equation}

      since the product of the two indicators functions is zero everywhere



      Is this reasoning correct? If not , could you tell me what is problem. Furthermore how could I show that $P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0$ on ${S=infty }$. Where is the progressive measurability of $X$ being used?










      share|cite|improve this question













      For any progressively measurable process $X$ and any optional time $S$ of ${mathcal{F}_t}$ why do we have that
      $$P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0 text{ ,} P^mutext{-a.s. on } {S=infty}$$



      This is remark $2.6.4$ in Section 2.6 of Karatzas and Shreve's Brownian Motion and stochastic Calculus



      The author mentions at the beginning of the remark that ${X_{S+t} in Gamma }:= {X_{S+t} in Gamma,S<infty }$.
      enter image description here



      Now since $S$ is an ${mathcal{F}_t}$ optional time, $S$ is $ mathcal{F}_{S+}$ measurable
      So we can write
      begin{equation}
      begin{split}
      P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid mathcal{F}_{S+}] 1_{{S=infty}}=E^mu[1_{{X_{S+t} in Gamma}} 1_{{S=infty}} mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]=E^mu[1_{{X_{S+t} in Gamma,S<infty}}} 1_{{S=infty}} mid mathcal{F}_{S+}]\=0
      end{split}
      end{equation}

      since the product of the two indicators functions is zero everywhere



      Is this reasoning correct? If not , could you tell me what is problem. Furthermore how could I show that $P^mu[X_{S+t} in Gamma mid X_{S}]=0$ on ${S=infty }$. Where is the progressive measurability of $X$ being used?







      stochastic-processes stochastic-calculus markov-process stochastic-analysis






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      asked Nov 30 at 13:47









      user3503589

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          1. I think your reasoning of $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]=0$ on ${S=infty}$ is correct.


          2. According to the definition of $sigma(X_S)$ given in Problem 1.1.17, ${S=infty}insigma(X_S)$. So I think you can apply the same reasoning as above to verify that $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]=0$ on ${S=infty}$.


          3. To me it seems, therefore, that in asserting
            $$
            P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]
            =P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]
            =0text{ on }{S=infty},
            $$

            we don't need the progressive measurability of $X$. I guess that the authors say "for any progressively measurable process $X$" because immediately preceding the remark, they've defined Markov processes as progressively measurable processes satisfying the Markov property (Definitions 2.6.2 and 2.6.3). That is, "for any progressively measurable process $X$," it seems to me, is to say "for any progressively measurable process $X$ (whether it's a Markov process or not)."
            $quadquad$Markov processes are defined among progressively measurable processes probably in view of Proposition 1.2.18, i.e., to make sure $X_Sinmathcal F_{S+}$ (the Markov property is an assertion that a conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$ be equal to that given $X_S$, so among other things $X_S$ must be measurable with respect to $mathcal F_{S+}$).







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for very nice descriptive answer . But when you say I think you are correct do you mean maybe or you are convinced ? What bothers me is that this solution of mine to show that the conditional expectation is zero ( and yours too ) seems to be just a convenience because of the way the authors choose to define $X_{S+ t} in Gamma$ which made me wonder at the first place if my explanation is actually corrected.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:11










          • I am not really sure if I understood your last paragraph . First because Markov property talks about conditional probabilities ( and what you said about conditional expectation is just a consequence) . Second I don’t see why would be need that$ X_S$ is $mathcal{F}_{S+} measurable ?
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:22






          • 1




            Hi @user3503589 1. I am convinced. If $X1_A=0$, $X$ must be zero on $A$. 2. I don't understand what you mean by "a convenience." A definition is a definition. 3. A conditional probability is a conditional expectation, as you know. And the definition of conditional expectation is such that a version must be measurable with respect to the conditioning $sigma$-algebra.
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:34












          • By a convenience I meant quite trivial. I am sorry but what I meant was, where do you get ("Markov property is an assertion that the conditional expectation given $mathcal{F}_{S+}$ , is equal to that $X_S$") when you explain the reasoning for progressive measurability.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:48






          • 1




            Sorry for the ambiguity, I was simply reading a conditional probability as a conditional expectation whenever I see one. So by "the conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$" I meant "the conditional expectation of $1_{X_{S+t}inGamma}$ given $mathcal F_{S+}$.'' But it's true that the Markov property defined in terms of conditional probabilities is equivalent to the other well-known characterization involving conditional expectations of arbitrary bounded functions (Proposition 2.6.7(e')).
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:56











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          1. I think your reasoning of $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]=0$ on ${S=infty}$ is correct.


          2. According to the definition of $sigma(X_S)$ given in Problem 1.1.17, ${S=infty}insigma(X_S)$. So I think you can apply the same reasoning as above to verify that $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]=0$ on ${S=infty}$.


          3. To me it seems, therefore, that in asserting
            $$
            P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]
            =P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]
            =0text{ on }{S=infty},
            $$

            we don't need the progressive measurability of $X$. I guess that the authors say "for any progressively measurable process $X$" because immediately preceding the remark, they've defined Markov processes as progressively measurable processes satisfying the Markov property (Definitions 2.6.2 and 2.6.3). That is, "for any progressively measurable process $X$," it seems to me, is to say "for any progressively measurable process $X$ (whether it's a Markov process or not)."
            $quadquad$Markov processes are defined among progressively measurable processes probably in view of Proposition 1.2.18, i.e., to make sure $X_Sinmathcal F_{S+}$ (the Markov property is an assertion that a conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$ be equal to that given $X_S$, so among other things $X_S$ must be measurable with respect to $mathcal F_{S+}$).







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for very nice descriptive answer . But when you say I think you are correct do you mean maybe or you are convinced ? What bothers me is that this solution of mine to show that the conditional expectation is zero ( and yours too ) seems to be just a convenience because of the way the authors choose to define $X_{S+ t} in Gamma$ which made me wonder at the first place if my explanation is actually corrected.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:11










          • I am not really sure if I understood your last paragraph . First because Markov property talks about conditional probabilities ( and what you said about conditional expectation is just a consequence) . Second I don’t see why would be need that$ X_S$ is $mathcal{F}_{S+} measurable ?
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:22






          • 1




            Hi @user3503589 1. I am convinced. If $X1_A=0$, $X$ must be zero on $A$. 2. I don't understand what you mean by "a convenience." A definition is a definition. 3. A conditional probability is a conditional expectation, as you know. And the definition of conditional expectation is such that a version must be measurable with respect to the conditioning $sigma$-algebra.
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:34












          • By a convenience I meant quite trivial. I am sorry but what I meant was, where do you get ("Markov property is an assertion that the conditional expectation given $mathcal{F}_{S+}$ , is equal to that $X_S$") when you explain the reasoning for progressive measurability.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:48






          • 1




            Sorry for the ambiguity, I was simply reading a conditional probability as a conditional expectation whenever I see one. So by "the conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$" I meant "the conditional expectation of $1_{X_{S+t}inGamma}$ given $mathcal F_{S+}$.'' But it's true that the Markov property defined in terms of conditional probabilities is equivalent to the other well-known characterization involving conditional expectations of arbitrary bounded functions (Proposition 2.6.7(e')).
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:56
















          1















          1. I think your reasoning of $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]=0$ on ${S=infty}$ is correct.


          2. According to the definition of $sigma(X_S)$ given in Problem 1.1.17, ${S=infty}insigma(X_S)$. So I think you can apply the same reasoning as above to verify that $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]=0$ on ${S=infty}$.


          3. To me it seems, therefore, that in asserting
            $$
            P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]
            =P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]
            =0text{ on }{S=infty},
            $$

            we don't need the progressive measurability of $X$. I guess that the authors say "for any progressively measurable process $X$" because immediately preceding the remark, they've defined Markov processes as progressively measurable processes satisfying the Markov property (Definitions 2.6.2 and 2.6.3). That is, "for any progressively measurable process $X$," it seems to me, is to say "for any progressively measurable process $X$ (whether it's a Markov process or not)."
            $quadquad$Markov processes are defined among progressively measurable processes probably in view of Proposition 1.2.18, i.e., to make sure $X_Sinmathcal F_{S+}$ (the Markov property is an assertion that a conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$ be equal to that given $X_S$, so among other things $X_S$ must be measurable with respect to $mathcal F_{S+}$).







          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for very nice descriptive answer . But when you say I think you are correct do you mean maybe or you are convinced ? What bothers me is that this solution of mine to show that the conditional expectation is zero ( and yours too ) seems to be just a convenience because of the way the authors choose to define $X_{S+ t} in Gamma$ which made me wonder at the first place if my explanation is actually corrected.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:11










          • I am not really sure if I understood your last paragraph . First because Markov property talks about conditional probabilities ( and what you said about conditional expectation is just a consequence) . Second I don’t see why would be need that$ X_S$ is $mathcal{F}_{S+} measurable ?
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:22






          • 1




            Hi @user3503589 1. I am convinced. If $X1_A=0$, $X$ must be zero on $A$. 2. I don't understand what you mean by "a convenience." A definition is a definition. 3. A conditional probability is a conditional expectation, as you know. And the definition of conditional expectation is such that a version must be measurable with respect to the conditioning $sigma$-algebra.
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:34












          • By a convenience I meant quite trivial. I am sorry but what I meant was, where do you get ("Markov property is an assertion that the conditional expectation given $mathcal{F}_{S+}$ , is equal to that $X_S$") when you explain the reasoning for progressive measurability.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:48






          • 1




            Sorry for the ambiguity, I was simply reading a conditional probability as a conditional expectation whenever I see one. So by "the conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$" I meant "the conditional expectation of $1_{X_{S+t}inGamma}$ given $mathcal F_{S+}$.'' But it's true that the Markov property defined in terms of conditional probabilities is equivalent to the other well-known characterization involving conditional expectations of arbitrary bounded functions (Proposition 2.6.7(e')).
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:56














          1












          1








          1







          1. I think your reasoning of $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]=0$ on ${S=infty}$ is correct.


          2. According to the definition of $sigma(X_S)$ given in Problem 1.1.17, ${S=infty}insigma(X_S)$. So I think you can apply the same reasoning as above to verify that $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]=0$ on ${S=infty}$.


          3. To me it seems, therefore, that in asserting
            $$
            P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]
            =P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]
            =0text{ on }{S=infty},
            $$

            we don't need the progressive measurability of $X$. I guess that the authors say "for any progressively measurable process $X$" because immediately preceding the remark, they've defined Markov processes as progressively measurable processes satisfying the Markov property (Definitions 2.6.2 and 2.6.3). That is, "for any progressively measurable process $X$," it seems to me, is to say "for any progressively measurable process $X$ (whether it's a Markov process or not)."
            $quadquad$Markov processes are defined among progressively measurable processes probably in view of Proposition 1.2.18, i.e., to make sure $X_Sinmathcal F_{S+}$ (the Markov property is an assertion that a conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$ be equal to that given $X_S$, so among other things $X_S$ must be measurable with respect to $mathcal F_{S+}$).







          share|cite|improve this answer













          1. I think your reasoning of $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]=0$ on ${S=infty}$ is correct.


          2. According to the definition of $sigma(X_S)$ given in Problem 1.1.17, ${S=infty}insigma(X_S)$. So I think you can apply the same reasoning as above to verify that $P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]=0$ on ${S=infty}$.


          3. To me it seems, therefore, that in asserting
            $$
            P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|mathcal F_{S+}]
            =P^mu[X_{S+t}inGamma|X_S]
            =0text{ on }{S=infty},
            $$

            we don't need the progressive measurability of $X$. I guess that the authors say "for any progressively measurable process $X$" because immediately preceding the remark, they've defined Markov processes as progressively measurable processes satisfying the Markov property (Definitions 2.6.2 and 2.6.3). That is, "for any progressively measurable process $X$," it seems to me, is to say "for any progressively measurable process $X$ (whether it's a Markov process or not)."
            $quadquad$Markov processes are defined among progressively measurable processes probably in view of Proposition 1.2.18, i.e., to make sure $X_Sinmathcal F_{S+}$ (the Markov property is an assertion that a conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$ be equal to that given $X_S$, so among other things $X_S$ must be measurable with respect to $mathcal F_{S+}$).








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          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 1 at 10:26









          AddSup

          371214




          371214












          • Thank you for very nice descriptive answer . But when you say I think you are correct do you mean maybe or you are convinced ? What bothers me is that this solution of mine to show that the conditional expectation is zero ( and yours too ) seems to be just a convenience because of the way the authors choose to define $X_{S+ t} in Gamma$ which made me wonder at the first place if my explanation is actually corrected.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:11










          • I am not really sure if I understood your last paragraph . First because Markov property talks about conditional probabilities ( and what you said about conditional expectation is just a consequence) . Second I don’t see why would be need that$ X_S$ is $mathcal{F}_{S+} measurable ?
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:22






          • 1




            Hi @user3503589 1. I am convinced. If $X1_A=0$, $X$ must be zero on $A$. 2. I don't understand what you mean by "a convenience." A definition is a definition. 3. A conditional probability is a conditional expectation, as you know. And the definition of conditional expectation is such that a version must be measurable with respect to the conditioning $sigma$-algebra.
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:34












          • By a convenience I meant quite trivial. I am sorry but what I meant was, where do you get ("Markov property is an assertion that the conditional expectation given $mathcal{F}_{S+}$ , is equal to that $X_S$") when you explain the reasoning for progressive measurability.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:48






          • 1




            Sorry for the ambiguity, I was simply reading a conditional probability as a conditional expectation whenever I see one. So by "the conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$" I meant "the conditional expectation of $1_{X_{S+t}inGamma}$ given $mathcal F_{S+}$.'' But it's true that the Markov property defined in terms of conditional probabilities is equivalent to the other well-known characterization involving conditional expectations of arbitrary bounded functions (Proposition 2.6.7(e')).
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:56


















          • Thank you for very nice descriptive answer . But when you say I think you are correct do you mean maybe or you are convinced ? What bothers me is that this solution of mine to show that the conditional expectation is zero ( and yours too ) seems to be just a convenience because of the way the authors choose to define $X_{S+ t} in Gamma$ which made me wonder at the first place if my explanation is actually corrected.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:11










          • I am not really sure if I understood your last paragraph . First because Markov property talks about conditional probabilities ( and what you said about conditional expectation is just a consequence) . Second I don’t see why would be need that$ X_S$ is $mathcal{F}_{S+} measurable ?
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:22






          • 1




            Hi @user3503589 1. I am convinced. If $X1_A=0$, $X$ must be zero on $A$. 2. I don't understand what you mean by "a convenience." A definition is a definition. 3. A conditional probability is a conditional expectation, as you know. And the definition of conditional expectation is such that a version must be measurable with respect to the conditioning $sigma$-algebra.
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:34












          • By a convenience I meant quite trivial. I am sorry but what I meant was, where do you get ("Markov property is an assertion that the conditional expectation given $mathcal{F}_{S+}$ , is equal to that $X_S$") when you explain the reasoning for progressive measurability.
            – user3503589
            Dec 1 at 11:48






          • 1




            Sorry for the ambiguity, I was simply reading a conditional probability as a conditional expectation whenever I see one. So by "the conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$" I meant "the conditional expectation of $1_{X_{S+t}inGamma}$ given $mathcal F_{S+}$.'' But it's true that the Markov property defined in terms of conditional probabilities is equivalent to the other well-known characterization involving conditional expectations of arbitrary bounded functions (Proposition 2.6.7(e')).
            – AddSup
            Dec 1 at 11:56
















          Thank you for very nice descriptive answer . But when you say I think you are correct do you mean maybe or you are convinced ? What bothers me is that this solution of mine to show that the conditional expectation is zero ( and yours too ) seems to be just a convenience because of the way the authors choose to define $X_{S+ t} in Gamma$ which made me wonder at the first place if my explanation is actually corrected.
          – user3503589
          Dec 1 at 11:11




          Thank you for very nice descriptive answer . But when you say I think you are correct do you mean maybe or you are convinced ? What bothers me is that this solution of mine to show that the conditional expectation is zero ( and yours too ) seems to be just a convenience because of the way the authors choose to define $X_{S+ t} in Gamma$ which made me wonder at the first place if my explanation is actually corrected.
          – user3503589
          Dec 1 at 11:11












          I am not really sure if I understood your last paragraph . First because Markov property talks about conditional probabilities ( and what you said about conditional expectation is just a consequence) . Second I don’t see why would be need that$ X_S$ is $mathcal{F}_{S+} measurable ?
          – user3503589
          Dec 1 at 11:22




          I am not really sure if I understood your last paragraph . First because Markov property talks about conditional probabilities ( and what you said about conditional expectation is just a consequence) . Second I don’t see why would be need that$ X_S$ is $mathcal{F}_{S+} measurable ?
          – user3503589
          Dec 1 at 11:22




          1




          1




          Hi @user3503589 1. I am convinced. If $X1_A=0$, $X$ must be zero on $A$. 2. I don't understand what you mean by "a convenience." A definition is a definition. 3. A conditional probability is a conditional expectation, as you know. And the definition of conditional expectation is such that a version must be measurable with respect to the conditioning $sigma$-algebra.
          – AddSup
          Dec 1 at 11:34






          Hi @user3503589 1. I am convinced. If $X1_A=0$, $X$ must be zero on $A$. 2. I don't understand what you mean by "a convenience." A definition is a definition. 3. A conditional probability is a conditional expectation, as you know. And the definition of conditional expectation is such that a version must be measurable with respect to the conditioning $sigma$-algebra.
          – AddSup
          Dec 1 at 11:34














          By a convenience I meant quite trivial. I am sorry but what I meant was, where do you get ("Markov property is an assertion that the conditional expectation given $mathcal{F}_{S+}$ , is equal to that $X_S$") when you explain the reasoning for progressive measurability.
          – user3503589
          Dec 1 at 11:48




          By a convenience I meant quite trivial. I am sorry but what I meant was, where do you get ("Markov property is an assertion that the conditional expectation given $mathcal{F}_{S+}$ , is equal to that $X_S$") when you explain the reasoning for progressive measurability.
          – user3503589
          Dec 1 at 11:48




          1




          1




          Sorry for the ambiguity, I was simply reading a conditional probability as a conditional expectation whenever I see one. So by "the conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$" I meant "the conditional expectation of $1_{X_{S+t}inGamma}$ given $mathcal F_{S+}$.'' But it's true that the Markov property defined in terms of conditional probabilities is equivalent to the other well-known characterization involving conditional expectations of arbitrary bounded functions (Proposition 2.6.7(e')).
          – AddSup
          Dec 1 at 11:56




          Sorry for the ambiguity, I was simply reading a conditional probability as a conditional expectation whenever I see one. So by "the conditional expectation given $mathcal F_{S+}$" I meant "the conditional expectation of $1_{X_{S+t}inGamma}$ given $mathcal F_{S+}$.'' But it's true that the Markov property defined in terms of conditional probabilities is equivalent to the other well-known characterization involving conditional expectations of arbitrary bounded functions (Proposition 2.6.7(e')).
          – AddSup
          Dec 1 at 11:56


















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