How to prove that the set-theoretic difference operation $setminus$ cannot be defined through $cap$ and $cup$












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How does one go about proving that the set-theoretic difference operation $setminus$ cannot be defined through the operations $cap$ and $cup$?



My thoughts: I first assumed $A$ and $B$ are two non-disjoint non-empty sets since if they are disjoint and non-empty, then we have that $Asetminus B= A =Acap A=(Acap B) cup A$. Therefore we have defined, in this case, $setminus$ in terms of $cap$ and $cup$.



Next, I drew three Venn diagrams for $Acap B $, $Acup B $ and $Asetminus B $ and made the observation that $A setminus B$ involves an exclusion of a part of $A$. When I looked at the definitions, I could see this clearer:



$$Acap B = {xmid (xin A) land (xin B)}$$
$$Acup B = {xmid (xin A) lor (xin B)}$$
$$Asetminus B = {xmid (xin A) land mathbf{(xnotin B)}}$$



From this, I decided to conclude that since the intersection and union operations have the condition that $(xin B)$ whereas the set difference operation requires $(xnotin B)$, we cannot define set difference through the operations union and intersection only.



This is as far as I could go. How can I prove this formally?










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    1












    $begingroup$


    How does one go about proving that the set-theoretic difference operation $setminus$ cannot be defined through the operations $cap$ and $cup$?



    My thoughts: I first assumed $A$ and $B$ are two non-disjoint non-empty sets since if they are disjoint and non-empty, then we have that $Asetminus B= A =Acap A=(Acap B) cup A$. Therefore we have defined, in this case, $setminus$ in terms of $cap$ and $cup$.



    Next, I drew three Venn diagrams for $Acap B $, $Acup B $ and $Asetminus B $ and made the observation that $A setminus B$ involves an exclusion of a part of $A$. When I looked at the definitions, I could see this clearer:



    $$Acap B = {xmid (xin A) land (xin B)}$$
    $$Acup B = {xmid (xin A) lor (xin B)}$$
    $$Asetminus B = {xmid (xin A) land mathbf{(xnotin B)}}$$



    From this, I decided to conclude that since the intersection and union operations have the condition that $(xin B)$ whereas the set difference operation requires $(xnotin B)$, we cannot define set difference through the operations union and intersection only.



    This is as far as I could go. How can I prove this formally?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      How does one go about proving that the set-theoretic difference operation $setminus$ cannot be defined through the operations $cap$ and $cup$?



      My thoughts: I first assumed $A$ and $B$ are two non-disjoint non-empty sets since if they are disjoint and non-empty, then we have that $Asetminus B= A =Acap A=(Acap B) cup A$. Therefore we have defined, in this case, $setminus$ in terms of $cap$ and $cup$.



      Next, I drew three Venn diagrams for $Acap B $, $Acup B $ and $Asetminus B $ and made the observation that $A setminus B$ involves an exclusion of a part of $A$. When I looked at the definitions, I could see this clearer:



      $$Acap B = {xmid (xin A) land (xin B)}$$
      $$Acup B = {xmid (xin A) lor (xin B)}$$
      $$Asetminus B = {xmid (xin A) land mathbf{(xnotin B)}}$$



      From this, I decided to conclude that since the intersection and union operations have the condition that $(xin B)$ whereas the set difference operation requires $(xnotin B)$, we cannot define set difference through the operations union and intersection only.



      This is as far as I could go. How can I prove this formally?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      How does one go about proving that the set-theoretic difference operation $setminus$ cannot be defined through the operations $cap$ and $cup$?



      My thoughts: I first assumed $A$ and $B$ are two non-disjoint non-empty sets since if they are disjoint and non-empty, then we have that $Asetminus B= A =Acap A=(Acap B) cup A$. Therefore we have defined, in this case, $setminus$ in terms of $cap$ and $cup$.



      Next, I drew three Venn diagrams for $Acap B $, $Acup B $ and $Asetminus B $ and made the observation that $A setminus B$ involves an exclusion of a part of $A$. When I looked at the definitions, I could see this clearer:



      $$Acap B = {xmid (xin A) land (xin B)}$$
      $$Acup B = {xmid (xin A) lor (xin B)}$$
      $$Asetminus B = {xmid (xin A) land mathbf{(xnotin B)}}$$



      From this, I decided to conclude that since the intersection and union operations have the condition that $(xin B)$ whereas the set difference operation requires $(xnotin B)$, we cannot define set difference through the operations union and intersection only.



      This is as far as I could go. How can I prove this formally?







      discrete-mathematics elementary-set-theory






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      asked Dec 8 '18 at 13:04









      E.NoleE.Nole

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          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          All you need is a counterexample.



          Let $A = B = { 0 }$. Then all of the sets
          $$A,~ B,~ A cup A,~ A cap A,~ A cup B,~ A cap B,~ B cup A,~ B cap A,~ B cup B,~ B cup B$$
          are equal to ${ 0 }$, and so any set built out of $A$, $B$ and the operations $cup$ and $cap$ is equal to ${ 0 }$.



          But $B setminus A = varnothing ne { 0 }$, and so the set difference operator $setminus$ can't be expressed in terms of $cup$ and $cap$ alone.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            3












            $begingroup$

            The union and intersection operators are monotone. If $Asubseteq A'$
            and $Bsubseteq B'$ then $Acup Bsubseteq A'cup B'$ and $Acap Bsubseteq A'cap B'$. If $f(A,B)$ is a formal combination of $A$s and $B$s with unions and intersections, then it is monotone: $f(A,B)subseteq f(A',B')$ under the above
            assumptions. But $Asetminus B$ is not a monotone operation.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              active

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              active

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              2












              $begingroup$

              All you need is a counterexample.



              Let $A = B = { 0 }$. Then all of the sets
              $$A,~ B,~ A cup A,~ A cap A,~ A cup B,~ A cap B,~ B cup A,~ B cap A,~ B cup B,~ B cup B$$
              are equal to ${ 0 }$, and so any set built out of $A$, $B$ and the operations $cup$ and $cap$ is equal to ${ 0 }$.



              But $B setminus A = varnothing ne { 0 }$, and so the set difference operator $setminus$ can't be expressed in terms of $cup$ and $cap$ alone.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                All you need is a counterexample.



                Let $A = B = { 0 }$. Then all of the sets
                $$A,~ B,~ A cup A,~ A cap A,~ A cup B,~ A cap B,~ B cup A,~ B cap A,~ B cup B,~ B cup B$$
                are equal to ${ 0 }$, and so any set built out of $A$, $B$ and the operations $cup$ and $cap$ is equal to ${ 0 }$.



                But $B setminus A = varnothing ne { 0 }$, and so the set difference operator $setminus$ can't be expressed in terms of $cup$ and $cap$ alone.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  All you need is a counterexample.



                  Let $A = B = { 0 }$. Then all of the sets
                  $$A,~ B,~ A cup A,~ A cap A,~ A cup B,~ A cap B,~ B cup A,~ B cap A,~ B cup B,~ B cup B$$
                  are equal to ${ 0 }$, and so any set built out of $A$, $B$ and the operations $cup$ and $cap$ is equal to ${ 0 }$.



                  But $B setminus A = varnothing ne { 0 }$, and so the set difference operator $setminus$ can't be expressed in terms of $cup$ and $cap$ alone.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  All you need is a counterexample.



                  Let $A = B = { 0 }$. Then all of the sets
                  $$A,~ B,~ A cup A,~ A cap A,~ A cup B,~ A cap B,~ B cup A,~ B cap A,~ B cup B,~ B cup B$$
                  are equal to ${ 0 }$, and so any set built out of $A$, $B$ and the operations $cup$ and $cap$ is equal to ${ 0 }$.



                  But $B setminus A = varnothing ne { 0 }$, and so the set difference operator $setminus$ can't be expressed in terms of $cup$ and $cap$ alone.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 8 '18 at 14:48









                  Clive NewsteadClive Newstead

                  51.2k474135




                  51.2k474135























                      3












                      $begingroup$

                      The union and intersection operators are monotone. If $Asubseteq A'$
                      and $Bsubseteq B'$ then $Acup Bsubseteq A'cup B'$ and $Acap Bsubseteq A'cap B'$. If $f(A,B)$ is a formal combination of $A$s and $B$s with unions and intersections, then it is monotone: $f(A,B)subseteq f(A',B')$ under the above
                      assumptions. But $Asetminus B$ is not a monotone operation.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        3












                        $begingroup$

                        The union and intersection operators are monotone. If $Asubseteq A'$
                        and $Bsubseteq B'$ then $Acup Bsubseteq A'cup B'$ and $Acap Bsubseteq A'cap B'$. If $f(A,B)$ is a formal combination of $A$s and $B$s with unions and intersections, then it is monotone: $f(A,B)subseteq f(A',B')$ under the above
                        assumptions. But $Asetminus B$ is not a monotone operation.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          3












                          3








                          3





                          $begingroup$

                          The union and intersection operators are monotone. If $Asubseteq A'$
                          and $Bsubseteq B'$ then $Acup Bsubseteq A'cup B'$ and $Acap Bsubseteq A'cap B'$. If $f(A,B)$ is a formal combination of $A$s and $B$s with unions and intersections, then it is monotone: $f(A,B)subseteq f(A',B')$ under the above
                          assumptions. But $Asetminus B$ is not a monotone operation.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          The union and intersection operators are monotone. If $Asubseteq A'$
                          and $Bsubseteq B'$ then $Acup Bsubseteq A'cup B'$ and $Acap Bsubseteq A'cap B'$. If $f(A,B)$ is a formal combination of $A$s and $B$s with unions and intersections, then it is monotone: $f(A,B)subseteq f(A',B')$ under the above
                          assumptions. But $Asetminus B$ is not a monotone operation.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 8 '18 at 13:14









                          Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

                          103k1160132




                          103k1160132






























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