contour integral with given contour












1












$begingroup$


enter image description here



I know that there are three simple poles



e^(pii/3),e^(pii),e^(5pi*i/3)



and Res(1/(x^3+1))=Res(1/3x^2)=Res(-x/3)



but i dont know how to deal with that kind of contour



I gussed e^(pi*i/3) is only pole that interior of contour



but using only residue of e^(pi*i/3) doesn’t work.



hint will be appreciated










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    enter image description here



    I know that there are three simple poles



    e^(pii/3),e^(pii),e^(5pi*i/3)



    and Res(1/(x^3+1))=Res(1/3x^2)=Res(-x/3)



    but i dont know how to deal with that kind of contour



    I gussed e^(pi*i/3) is only pole that interior of contour



    but using only residue of e^(pi*i/3) doesn’t work.



    hint will be appreciated










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      0



      $begingroup$


      enter image description here



      I know that there are three simple poles



      e^(pii/3),e^(pii),e^(5pi*i/3)



      and Res(1/(x^3+1))=Res(1/3x^2)=Res(-x/3)



      but i dont know how to deal with that kind of contour



      I gussed e^(pi*i/3) is only pole that interior of contour



      but using only residue of e^(pi*i/3) doesn’t work.



      hint will be appreciated










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      enter image description here



      I know that there are three simple poles



      e^(pii/3),e^(pii),e^(5pi*i/3)



      and Res(1/(x^3+1))=Res(1/3x^2)=Res(-x/3)



      but i dont know how to deal with that kind of contour



      I gussed e^(pi*i/3) is only pole that interior of contour



      but using only residue of e^(pi*i/3) doesn’t work.



      hint will be appreciated







      complex-analysis contour-integration






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 11 '18 at 23:57









      simsimsimsim

      434




      434






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          For the integral along the real axis, we have : $x=te^{2pi i}=t, dx=dt$, so we have $int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}$ which is our original integral ($:=I$)



          For the integral along part of the circle, we have :$$x=R*e^{frac{2pi it}{3}}, 0 leq tleq 1, dx=frac{2pi i}{3}R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}$$ so we have $$frac{2pi i}{3}int frac{R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}}{R^3*e^{2pi it}+1}dt$$ which tends to zero as R $to infty$

          Now, for the last one : $x=te^{frac{2pi i}{3}}, dx=e^{frac{2pi i}{3}}dt$
          Our integral is $int_{infty}^{0}frac{e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}dt}{t^3+1}=-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}} int^{infty}_{0}frac{dt}{t^3+1}= -e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}*I$



          So the residue theorem gives use $$(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1} + 0 = 2 pi i sum Res(f_i)$$



          Our only residue inside our domain is $x=e^{frac{pi i}{3}}$ If we compute our residue, we get $frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}$



          Finally we have :$$int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}=frac{2 pi i}{(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})}*frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}=frac{2 pi}{3 sqrt{3}}$$



          If I did any typo, please say it in the comments as soon as possible.



          Hope this helps !






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1 Answer
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            active

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            1












            $begingroup$

            For the integral along the real axis, we have : $x=te^{2pi i}=t, dx=dt$, so we have $int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}$ which is our original integral ($:=I$)



            For the integral along part of the circle, we have :$$x=R*e^{frac{2pi it}{3}}, 0 leq tleq 1, dx=frac{2pi i}{3}R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}$$ so we have $$frac{2pi i}{3}int frac{R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}}{R^3*e^{2pi it}+1}dt$$ which tends to zero as R $to infty$

            Now, for the last one : $x=te^{frac{2pi i}{3}}, dx=e^{frac{2pi i}{3}}dt$
            Our integral is $int_{infty}^{0}frac{e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}dt}{t^3+1}=-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}} int^{infty}_{0}frac{dt}{t^3+1}= -e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}*I$



            So the residue theorem gives use $$(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1} + 0 = 2 pi i sum Res(f_i)$$



            Our only residue inside our domain is $x=e^{frac{pi i}{3}}$ If we compute our residue, we get $frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}$



            Finally we have :$$int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}=frac{2 pi i}{(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})}*frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}=frac{2 pi}{3 sqrt{3}}$$



            If I did any typo, please say it in the comments as soon as possible.



            Hope this helps !






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              For the integral along the real axis, we have : $x=te^{2pi i}=t, dx=dt$, so we have $int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}$ which is our original integral ($:=I$)



              For the integral along part of the circle, we have :$$x=R*e^{frac{2pi it}{3}}, 0 leq tleq 1, dx=frac{2pi i}{3}R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}$$ so we have $$frac{2pi i}{3}int frac{R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}}{R^3*e^{2pi it}+1}dt$$ which tends to zero as R $to infty$

              Now, for the last one : $x=te^{frac{2pi i}{3}}, dx=e^{frac{2pi i}{3}}dt$
              Our integral is $int_{infty}^{0}frac{e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}dt}{t^3+1}=-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}} int^{infty}_{0}frac{dt}{t^3+1}= -e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}*I$



              So the residue theorem gives use $$(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1} + 0 = 2 pi i sum Res(f_i)$$



              Our only residue inside our domain is $x=e^{frac{pi i}{3}}$ If we compute our residue, we get $frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}$



              Finally we have :$$int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}=frac{2 pi i}{(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})}*frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}=frac{2 pi}{3 sqrt{3}}$$



              If I did any typo, please say it in the comments as soon as possible.



              Hope this helps !






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                For the integral along the real axis, we have : $x=te^{2pi i}=t, dx=dt$, so we have $int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}$ which is our original integral ($:=I$)



                For the integral along part of the circle, we have :$$x=R*e^{frac{2pi it}{3}}, 0 leq tleq 1, dx=frac{2pi i}{3}R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}$$ so we have $$frac{2pi i}{3}int frac{R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}}{R^3*e^{2pi it}+1}dt$$ which tends to zero as R $to infty$

                Now, for the last one : $x=te^{frac{2pi i}{3}}, dx=e^{frac{2pi i}{3}}dt$
                Our integral is $int_{infty}^{0}frac{e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}dt}{t^3+1}=-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}} int^{infty}_{0}frac{dt}{t^3+1}= -e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}*I$



                So the residue theorem gives use $$(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1} + 0 = 2 pi i sum Res(f_i)$$



                Our only residue inside our domain is $x=e^{frac{pi i}{3}}$ If we compute our residue, we get $frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}$



                Finally we have :$$int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}=frac{2 pi i}{(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})}*frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}=frac{2 pi}{3 sqrt{3}}$$



                If I did any typo, please say it in the comments as soon as possible.



                Hope this helps !






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                For the integral along the real axis, we have : $x=te^{2pi i}=t, dx=dt$, so we have $int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}$ which is our original integral ($:=I$)



                For the integral along part of the circle, we have :$$x=R*e^{frac{2pi it}{3}}, 0 leq tleq 1, dx=frac{2pi i}{3}R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}$$ so we have $$frac{2pi i}{3}int frac{R*e^{frac{2 pi i t}{3}}}{R^3*e^{2pi it}+1}dt$$ which tends to zero as R $to infty$

                Now, for the last one : $x=te^{frac{2pi i}{3}}, dx=e^{frac{2pi i}{3}}dt$
                Our integral is $int_{infty}^{0}frac{e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}dt}{t^3+1}=-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}} int^{infty}_{0}frac{dt}{t^3+1}= -e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}*I$



                So the residue theorem gives use $$(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1} + 0 = 2 pi i sum Res(f_i)$$



                Our only residue inside our domain is $x=e^{frac{pi i}{3}}$ If we compute our residue, we get $frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}$



                Finally we have :$$int_{0}^{infty}frac{dt}{t^3+1}=frac{2 pi i}{(1-e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}})}*frac{1}{3e^{frac{2 pi i}{3}}}=frac{2 pi}{3 sqrt{3}}$$



                If I did any typo, please say it in the comments as soon as possible.



                Hope this helps !







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 12 '18 at 22:22









                PoujhPoujh

                614516




                614516






























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