Proving that $exists f in X^*$ : $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $|f| = |x|$












3












$begingroup$


Exercise :




Let $X$ be a normed space. Prove that for all $x in X$ there exists $f in X^*$, such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $ |f| = |x |$.




Thoughts :



I apologise for not providing a proper attempt but this is one of the first such exercises I'm handling, so I seem at loss.



Initially, I thought about the Riesz Representation Theorem, which could yield the result straightforward, but the space we are working over must be a Hilbert Space, which we do not know in the given exercise.



The second possible solution could (and probably should) be based on the Hahn-Banach Theorem (or one of its results/applications) but I cannot see a way out.



Any hints or elaborations will be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    Exercise :




    Let $X$ be a normed space. Prove that for all $x in X$ there exists $f in X^*$, such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $ |f| = |x |$.




    Thoughts :



    I apologise for not providing a proper attempt but this is one of the first such exercises I'm handling, so I seem at loss.



    Initially, I thought about the Riesz Representation Theorem, which could yield the result straightforward, but the space we are working over must be a Hilbert Space, which we do not know in the given exercise.



    The second possible solution could (and probably should) be based on the Hahn-Banach Theorem (or one of its results/applications) but I cannot see a way out.



    Any hints or elaborations will be greatly appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Exercise :




      Let $X$ be a normed space. Prove that for all $x in X$ there exists $f in X^*$, such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $ |f| = |x |$.




      Thoughts :



      I apologise for not providing a proper attempt but this is one of the first such exercises I'm handling, so I seem at loss.



      Initially, I thought about the Riesz Representation Theorem, which could yield the result straightforward, but the space we are working over must be a Hilbert Space, which we do not know in the given exercise.



      The second possible solution could (and probably should) be based on the Hahn-Banach Theorem (or one of its results/applications) but I cannot see a way out.



      Any hints or elaborations will be greatly appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Exercise :




      Let $X$ be a normed space. Prove that for all $x in X$ there exists $f in X^*$, such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $ |f| = |x |$.




      Thoughts :



      I apologise for not providing a proper attempt but this is one of the first such exercises I'm handling, so I seem at loss.



      Initially, I thought about the Riesz Representation Theorem, which could yield the result straightforward, but the space we are working over must be a Hilbert Space, which we do not know in the given exercise.



      The second possible solution could (and probably should) be based on the Hahn-Banach Theorem (or one of its results/applications) but I cannot see a way out.



      Any hints or elaborations will be greatly appreciated.







      functional-analysis normed-spaces riesz-representation-theorem hahn-banach-theorem






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 17 '18 at 15:20







      Rebellos

















      asked Dec 17 '18 at 14:18









      RebellosRebellos

      14.8k31248




      14.8k31248






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          If $x=0$, we are done. Now let $x in X$ and $x ne 0$. A consequence of the Hahn-Banach theorem is the existence of some $g in X^*$ with



          $g(x)=||x||$ and $||g||=1.$



          Now it is easy to see that $f:=||x||g$ has the desired properties.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            Fix an $xin X$. If $x=0$ then the answer is rather easy, so we can assume $xneq 0$.



            Next, define a suitable functional on the linear hull of $x$, which is the linear subspace $V:={ alpha cdot x | alpha in mathbb R}$.
            Then extend this functional onto the whole space $X$ using the Hahn-Banach theorem.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Let's say $f : langle x : x in X rangle to mathbb R$ with $f(y) = langle y,x rangle$. Then we can see that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $frac{|f(x)|}{|x|} = |x| implies |f| = |x|$. But $ langle x : x in X rangle subseteq X $ and one can see that the $f$ defined is a bounded linear functional, thus it can be extended to $X$ which implies that $exists f in X^*$ such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $|f| = |x|$. Does that make sense or do I have any errors ?
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 17 '18 at 14:33












            • $begingroup$
              I just saw your edit. I would appreciate an input regarding my attempted approach and/or an input regarding an approach you would recommend.
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 17 '18 at 14:43










            • $begingroup$
              No, your approach does not work since $langle cdot,cdotrangle$ is not defined on $X$. $X$ is only a normed vector space in your question. Also the notation $<x : xin X>$ is not a standard notation. if it is a set it would use ${}$ instead of $<>$. Note that $X={x:xin X}$, so your space is not a proper subspace of $X$.
              $endgroup$
              – supinf
              Dec 17 '18 at 14:46










            • $begingroup$
              $langle rangle$ denotes the linear hull. If my approach is not correct, would you mind elaborating as such, in order to properly understand ? I guess another proper functional will be $f : {lambda cdot x | x in X, ; lambda in mathbb R} to mathbb R$ such that $f(x) = frac{1}{lambda^2}|x|^2$ ?
              $endgroup$
              – Rebellos
              Dec 17 '18 at 14:46












            • $begingroup$
              You should work with a fixed $x$ and not use it as a variable for the definition of functions or sets. Note that your suggestion for $f$ is not linear. With the linear hull notation, the space should be $V=langle x rangle$, which has dimension $1$.
              $endgroup$
              – supinf
              Dec 17 '18 at 14:54













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            2 Answers
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            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

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            votes






            active

            oldest

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            3












            $begingroup$

            If $x=0$, we are done. Now let $x in X$ and $x ne 0$. A consequence of the Hahn-Banach theorem is the existence of some $g in X^*$ with



            $g(x)=||x||$ and $||g||=1.$



            Now it is easy to see that $f:=||x||g$ has the desired properties.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              If $x=0$, we are done. Now let $x in X$ and $x ne 0$. A consequence of the Hahn-Banach theorem is the existence of some $g in X^*$ with



              $g(x)=||x||$ and $||g||=1.$



              Now it is easy to see that $f:=||x||g$ has the desired properties.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                If $x=0$, we are done. Now let $x in X$ and $x ne 0$. A consequence of the Hahn-Banach theorem is the existence of some $g in X^*$ with



                $g(x)=||x||$ and $||g||=1.$



                Now it is easy to see that $f:=||x||g$ has the desired properties.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                If $x=0$, we are done. Now let $x in X$ and $x ne 0$. A consequence of the Hahn-Banach theorem is the existence of some $g in X^*$ with



                $g(x)=||x||$ and $||g||=1.$



                Now it is easy to see that $f:=||x||g$ has the desired properties.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 17 '18 at 14:29









                FredFred

                46.9k1848




                46.9k1848























                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    Hint:



                    Fix an $xin X$. If $x=0$ then the answer is rather easy, so we can assume $xneq 0$.



                    Next, define a suitable functional on the linear hull of $x$, which is the linear subspace $V:={ alpha cdot x | alpha in mathbb R}$.
                    Then extend this functional onto the whole space $X$ using the Hahn-Banach theorem.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Let's say $f : langle x : x in X rangle to mathbb R$ with $f(y) = langle y,x rangle$. Then we can see that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $frac{|f(x)|}{|x|} = |x| implies |f| = |x|$. But $ langle x : x in X rangle subseteq X $ and one can see that the $f$ defined is a bounded linear functional, thus it can be extended to $X$ which implies that $exists f in X^*$ such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $|f| = |x|$. Does that make sense or do I have any errors ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:33












                    • $begingroup$
                      I just saw your edit. I would appreciate an input regarding my attempted approach and/or an input regarding an approach you would recommend.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:43










                    • $begingroup$
                      No, your approach does not work since $langle cdot,cdotrangle$ is not defined on $X$. $X$ is only a normed vector space in your question. Also the notation $<x : xin X>$ is not a standard notation. if it is a set it would use ${}$ instead of $<>$. Note that $X={x:xin X}$, so your space is not a proper subspace of $X$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – supinf
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:46










                    • $begingroup$
                      $langle rangle$ denotes the linear hull. If my approach is not correct, would you mind elaborating as such, in order to properly understand ? I guess another proper functional will be $f : {lambda cdot x | x in X, ; lambda in mathbb R} to mathbb R$ such that $f(x) = frac{1}{lambda^2}|x|^2$ ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:46












                    • $begingroup$
                      You should work with a fixed $x$ and not use it as a variable for the definition of functions or sets. Note that your suggestion for $f$ is not linear. With the linear hull notation, the space should be $V=langle x rangle$, which has dimension $1$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – supinf
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:54


















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    Hint:



                    Fix an $xin X$. If $x=0$ then the answer is rather easy, so we can assume $xneq 0$.



                    Next, define a suitable functional on the linear hull of $x$, which is the linear subspace $V:={ alpha cdot x | alpha in mathbb R}$.
                    Then extend this functional onto the whole space $X$ using the Hahn-Banach theorem.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Let's say $f : langle x : x in X rangle to mathbb R$ with $f(y) = langle y,x rangle$. Then we can see that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $frac{|f(x)|}{|x|} = |x| implies |f| = |x|$. But $ langle x : x in X rangle subseteq X $ and one can see that the $f$ defined is a bounded linear functional, thus it can be extended to $X$ which implies that $exists f in X^*$ such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $|f| = |x|$. Does that make sense or do I have any errors ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:33












                    • $begingroup$
                      I just saw your edit. I would appreciate an input regarding my attempted approach and/or an input regarding an approach you would recommend.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:43










                    • $begingroup$
                      No, your approach does not work since $langle cdot,cdotrangle$ is not defined on $X$. $X$ is only a normed vector space in your question. Also the notation $<x : xin X>$ is not a standard notation. if it is a set it would use ${}$ instead of $<>$. Note that $X={x:xin X}$, so your space is not a proper subspace of $X$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – supinf
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:46










                    • $begingroup$
                      $langle rangle$ denotes the linear hull. If my approach is not correct, would you mind elaborating as such, in order to properly understand ? I guess another proper functional will be $f : {lambda cdot x | x in X, ; lambda in mathbb R} to mathbb R$ such that $f(x) = frac{1}{lambda^2}|x|^2$ ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:46












                    • $begingroup$
                      You should work with a fixed $x$ and not use it as a variable for the definition of functions or sets. Note that your suggestion for $f$ is not linear. With the linear hull notation, the space should be $V=langle x rangle$, which has dimension $1$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – supinf
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:54
















                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    Hint:



                    Fix an $xin X$. If $x=0$ then the answer is rather easy, so we can assume $xneq 0$.



                    Next, define a suitable functional on the linear hull of $x$, which is the linear subspace $V:={ alpha cdot x | alpha in mathbb R}$.
                    Then extend this functional onto the whole space $X$ using the Hahn-Banach theorem.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    Hint:



                    Fix an $xin X$. If $x=0$ then the answer is rather easy, so we can assume $xneq 0$.



                    Next, define a suitable functional on the linear hull of $x$, which is the linear subspace $V:={ alpha cdot x | alpha in mathbb R}$.
                    Then extend this functional onto the whole space $X$ using the Hahn-Banach theorem.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Dec 17 '18 at 14:41

























                    answered Dec 17 '18 at 14:21









                    supinfsupinf

                    6,3561028




                    6,3561028












                    • $begingroup$
                      Let's say $f : langle x : x in X rangle to mathbb R$ with $f(y) = langle y,x rangle$. Then we can see that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $frac{|f(x)|}{|x|} = |x| implies |f| = |x|$. But $ langle x : x in X rangle subseteq X $ and one can see that the $f$ defined is a bounded linear functional, thus it can be extended to $X$ which implies that $exists f in X^*$ such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $|f| = |x|$. Does that make sense or do I have any errors ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:33












                    • $begingroup$
                      I just saw your edit. I would appreciate an input regarding my attempted approach and/or an input regarding an approach you would recommend.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:43










                    • $begingroup$
                      No, your approach does not work since $langle cdot,cdotrangle$ is not defined on $X$. $X$ is only a normed vector space in your question. Also the notation $<x : xin X>$ is not a standard notation. if it is a set it would use ${}$ instead of $<>$. Note that $X={x:xin X}$, so your space is not a proper subspace of $X$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – supinf
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:46










                    • $begingroup$
                      $langle rangle$ denotes the linear hull. If my approach is not correct, would you mind elaborating as such, in order to properly understand ? I guess another proper functional will be $f : {lambda cdot x | x in X, ; lambda in mathbb R} to mathbb R$ such that $f(x) = frac{1}{lambda^2}|x|^2$ ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:46












                    • $begingroup$
                      You should work with a fixed $x$ and not use it as a variable for the definition of functions or sets. Note that your suggestion for $f$ is not linear. With the linear hull notation, the space should be $V=langle x rangle$, which has dimension $1$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – supinf
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:54




















                    • $begingroup$
                      Let's say $f : langle x : x in X rangle to mathbb R$ with $f(y) = langle y,x rangle$. Then we can see that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $frac{|f(x)|}{|x|} = |x| implies |f| = |x|$. But $ langle x : x in X rangle subseteq X $ and one can see that the $f$ defined is a bounded linear functional, thus it can be extended to $X$ which implies that $exists f in X^*$ such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $|f| = |x|$. Does that make sense or do I have any errors ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:33












                    • $begingroup$
                      I just saw your edit. I would appreciate an input regarding my attempted approach and/or an input regarding an approach you would recommend.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:43










                    • $begingroup$
                      No, your approach does not work since $langle cdot,cdotrangle$ is not defined on $X$. $X$ is only a normed vector space in your question. Also the notation $<x : xin X>$ is not a standard notation. if it is a set it would use ${}$ instead of $<>$. Note that $X={x:xin X}$, so your space is not a proper subspace of $X$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – supinf
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:46










                    • $begingroup$
                      $langle rangle$ denotes the linear hull. If my approach is not correct, would you mind elaborating as such, in order to properly understand ? I guess another proper functional will be $f : {lambda cdot x | x in X, ; lambda in mathbb R} to mathbb R$ such that $f(x) = frac{1}{lambda^2}|x|^2$ ?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Rebellos
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:46












                    • $begingroup$
                      You should work with a fixed $x$ and not use it as a variable for the definition of functions or sets. Note that your suggestion for $f$ is not linear. With the linear hull notation, the space should be $V=langle x rangle$, which has dimension $1$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – supinf
                      Dec 17 '18 at 14:54


















                    $begingroup$
                    Let's say $f : langle x : x in X rangle to mathbb R$ with $f(y) = langle y,x rangle$. Then we can see that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $frac{|f(x)|}{|x|} = |x| implies |f| = |x|$. But $ langle x : x in X rangle subseteq X $ and one can see that the $f$ defined is a bounded linear functional, thus it can be extended to $X$ which implies that $exists f in X^*$ such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $|f| = |x|$. Does that make sense or do I have any errors ?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Rebellos
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:33






                    $begingroup$
                    Let's say $f : langle x : x in X rangle to mathbb R$ with $f(y) = langle y,x rangle$. Then we can see that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $frac{|f(x)|}{|x|} = |x| implies |f| = |x|$. But $ langle x : x in X rangle subseteq X $ and one can see that the $f$ defined is a bounded linear functional, thus it can be extended to $X$ which implies that $exists f in X^*$ such that $f(x) = |x|^2$ and $|f| = |x|$. Does that make sense or do I have any errors ?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Rebellos
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:33














                    $begingroup$
                    I just saw your edit. I would appreciate an input regarding my attempted approach and/or an input regarding an approach you would recommend.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Rebellos
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:43




                    $begingroup$
                    I just saw your edit. I would appreciate an input regarding my attempted approach and/or an input regarding an approach you would recommend.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Rebellos
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:43












                    $begingroup$
                    No, your approach does not work since $langle cdot,cdotrangle$ is not defined on $X$. $X$ is only a normed vector space in your question. Also the notation $<x : xin X>$ is not a standard notation. if it is a set it would use ${}$ instead of $<>$. Note that $X={x:xin X}$, so your space is not a proper subspace of $X$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – supinf
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:46




                    $begingroup$
                    No, your approach does not work since $langle cdot,cdotrangle$ is not defined on $X$. $X$ is only a normed vector space in your question. Also the notation $<x : xin X>$ is not a standard notation. if it is a set it would use ${}$ instead of $<>$. Note that $X={x:xin X}$, so your space is not a proper subspace of $X$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – supinf
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:46












                    $begingroup$
                    $langle rangle$ denotes the linear hull. If my approach is not correct, would you mind elaborating as such, in order to properly understand ? I guess another proper functional will be $f : {lambda cdot x | x in X, ; lambda in mathbb R} to mathbb R$ such that $f(x) = frac{1}{lambda^2}|x|^2$ ?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Rebellos
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:46






                    $begingroup$
                    $langle rangle$ denotes the linear hull. If my approach is not correct, would you mind elaborating as such, in order to properly understand ? I guess another proper functional will be $f : {lambda cdot x | x in X, ; lambda in mathbb R} to mathbb R$ such that $f(x) = frac{1}{lambda^2}|x|^2$ ?
                    $endgroup$
                    – Rebellos
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:46














                    $begingroup$
                    You should work with a fixed $x$ and not use it as a variable for the definition of functions or sets. Note that your suggestion for $f$ is not linear. With the linear hull notation, the space should be $V=langle x rangle$, which has dimension $1$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – supinf
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:54






                    $begingroup$
                    You should work with a fixed $x$ and not use it as a variable for the definition of functions or sets. Note that your suggestion for $f$ is not linear. With the linear hull notation, the space should be $V=langle x rangle$, which has dimension $1$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – supinf
                    Dec 17 '18 at 14:54




















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