Existence of solution to $f(x) = 1 - [int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt]^2$












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Prove the existence and uniqueness of $text{ } f(x) in C^1([0,1])$ such that $text{ }f: [0,1] rightarrow [0,1]$ where begin{equation} f(x) = 1 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt)^2 end{equation}



I was able to prove uniqueness using a standard argument of using continuity to show $f(x) - g(x) = 0$ on $x in [0,1]$ is they satisfy the above integral equation. However, I'm stuck on figuring out how to show a solution exists.



My initial assumption was that one can show that a solution exists by using Banach fixed point theorem on $C^{1}[0,1]$, but I'm not sure how to bound the metric:



Let $T(f(x)) := 1 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt)^2$, then begin{equation} ||T(f(x)) - T(g(x))||_{infty} = sup_{x in [0,1]} |(int_{0}^{x} tg(t)) dt)^2 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt )^2|end{equation} But I'm not sure on how to bound the above expression to get a contraction mapping. An observation I made is the integral is an inner product $<t,f(t)>$, but when I wanted to use Cauchy Schwarz Inequality I realized I needed to use the triangle in the sup norm, from which I couldn't prove its a contraction mapping.



Any help on how to bound the sup norm or how else to proceed would be very helpful. Thank you!










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    3












    $begingroup$


    Prove the existence and uniqueness of $text{ } f(x) in C^1([0,1])$ such that $text{ }f: [0,1] rightarrow [0,1]$ where begin{equation} f(x) = 1 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt)^2 end{equation}



    I was able to prove uniqueness using a standard argument of using continuity to show $f(x) - g(x) = 0$ on $x in [0,1]$ is they satisfy the above integral equation. However, I'm stuck on figuring out how to show a solution exists.



    My initial assumption was that one can show that a solution exists by using Banach fixed point theorem on $C^{1}[0,1]$, but I'm not sure how to bound the metric:



    Let $T(f(x)) := 1 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt)^2$, then begin{equation} ||T(f(x)) - T(g(x))||_{infty} = sup_{x in [0,1]} |(int_{0}^{x} tg(t)) dt)^2 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt )^2|end{equation} But I'm not sure on how to bound the above expression to get a contraction mapping. An observation I made is the integral is an inner product $<t,f(t)>$, but when I wanted to use Cauchy Schwarz Inequality I realized I needed to use the triangle in the sup norm, from which I couldn't prove its a contraction mapping.



    Any help on how to bound the sup norm or how else to proceed would be very helpful. Thank you!










    share|cite|improve this question









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      $begingroup$


      Prove the existence and uniqueness of $text{ } f(x) in C^1([0,1])$ such that $text{ }f: [0,1] rightarrow [0,1]$ where begin{equation} f(x) = 1 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt)^2 end{equation}



      I was able to prove uniqueness using a standard argument of using continuity to show $f(x) - g(x) = 0$ on $x in [0,1]$ is they satisfy the above integral equation. However, I'm stuck on figuring out how to show a solution exists.



      My initial assumption was that one can show that a solution exists by using Banach fixed point theorem on $C^{1}[0,1]$, but I'm not sure how to bound the metric:



      Let $T(f(x)) := 1 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt)^2$, then begin{equation} ||T(f(x)) - T(g(x))||_{infty} = sup_{x in [0,1]} |(int_{0}^{x} tg(t)) dt)^2 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt )^2|end{equation} But I'm not sure on how to bound the above expression to get a contraction mapping. An observation I made is the integral is an inner product $<t,f(t)>$, but when I wanted to use Cauchy Schwarz Inequality I realized I needed to use the triangle in the sup norm, from which I couldn't prove its a contraction mapping.



      Any help on how to bound the sup norm or how else to proceed would be very helpful. Thank you!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Prove the existence and uniqueness of $text{ } f(x) in C^1([0,1])$ such that $text{ }f: [0,1] rightarrow [0,1]$ where begin{equation} f(x) = 1 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt)^2 end{equation}



      I was able to prove uniqueness using a standard argument of using continuity to show $f(x) - g(x) = 0$ on $x in [0,1]$ is they satisfy the above integral equation. However, I'm stuck on figuring out how to show a solution exists.



      My initial assumption was that one can show that a solution exists by using Banach fixed point theorem on $C^{1}[0,1]$, but I'm not sure how to bound the metric:



      Let $T(f(x)) := 1 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt)^2$, then begin{equation} ||T(f(x)) - T(g(x))||_{infty} = sup_{x in [0,1]} |(int_{0}^{x} tg(t)) dt)^2 - (int_{0}^{x} tf(t) dt )^2|end{equation} But I'm not sure on how to bound the above expression to get a contraction mapping. An observation I made is the integral is an inner product $<t,f(t)>$, but when I wanted to use Cauchy Schwarz Inequality I realized I needed to use the triangle in the sup norm, from which I couldn't prove its a contraction mapping.



      Any help on how to bound the sup norm or how else to proceed would be very helpful. Thank you!







      real-analysis integration fixed-point-theorems






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      asked Dec 29 '18 at 1:25









      Story123Story123

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          $begingroup$

          A little algebra:
          begin{align}
          left(int_0^x tgdtright)^2-left(int_0^x tfdtright)^2&=left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)-left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)+left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]\
          &=left(int_0^x t(g-f)dtright)left(int_0^x t(g+f)dtright),
          end{align}

          with
          $$
          |int_0^xt(f+g)dt|le 2int_0^xtdtle 1,
          $$

          and
          $$
          |int_0^xt(g-f)dt|le |g-f|_inftyint_0^xtdtlefrac{1}{2}|g-f|_infty.
          $$

          This is enough for a contraction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            A little algebra:
            begin{align}
            left(int_0^x tgdtright)^2-left(int_0^x tfdtright)^2&=left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)-left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)+left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]\
            &=left(int_0^x t(g-f)dtright)left(int_0^x t(g+f)dtright),
            end{align}

            with
            $$
            |int_0^xt(f+g)dt|le 2int_0^xtdtle 1,
            $$

            and
            $$
            |int_0^xt(g-f)dt|le |g-f|_inftyint_0^xtdtlefrac{1}{2}|g-f|_infty.
            $$

            This is enough for a contraction.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              A little algebra:
              begin{align}
              left(int_0^x tgdtright)^2-left(int_0^x tfdtright)^2&=left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)-left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)+left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]\
              &=left(int_0^x t(g-f)dtright)left(int_0^x t(g+f)dtright),
              end{align}

              with
              $$
              |int_0^xt(f+g)dt|le 2int_0^xtdtle 1,
              $$

              and
              $$
              |int_0^xt(g-f)dt|le |g-f|_inftyint_0^xtdtlefrac{1}{2}|g-f|_infty.
              $$

              This is enough for a contraction.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                A little algebra:
                begin{align}
                left(int_0^x tgdtright)^2-left(int_0^x tfdtright)^2&=left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)-left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)+left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]\
                &=left(int_0^x t(g-f)dtright)left(int_0^x t(g+f)dtright),
                end{align}

                with
                $$
                |int_0^xt(f+g)dt|le 2int_0^xtdtle 1,
                $$

                and
                $$
                |int_0^xt(g-f)dt|le |g-f|_inftyint_0^xtdtlefrac{1}{2}|g-f|_infty.
                $$

                This is enough for a contraction.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                A little algebra:
                begin{align}
                left(int_0^x tgdtright)^2-left(int_0^x tfdtright)^2&=left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)-left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]left[left(int_0^x tgdtright)+left(int_0^x tfdtright)right]\
                &=left(int_0^x t(g-f)dtright)left(int_0^x t(g+f)dtright),
                end{align}

                with
                $$
                |int_0^xt(f+g)dt|le 2int_0^xtdtle 1,
                $$

                and
                $$
                |int_0^xt(g-f)dt|le |g-f|_inftyint_0^xtdtlefrac{1}{2}|g-f|_infty.
                $$

                This is enough for a contraction.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 29 '18 at 1:51









                user254433user254433

                2,541712




                2,541712






























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