$(f,g) = C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) = emptyset$












0












$begingroup$


Theorem:



a: If $I$is an ideal in $C(X)$ , then the family $Z[I] = { Z(f) : f in I } $ is a $z$-filter on $X$.



b: if $mathbf{F}$ is a $z$-filter on $X$, then the family $Z^{-1} [ mathbf{F} ] = { f : Z(f) in mathbf{F} }$ is an ideal in $C(X)$.



Remark:



$(f,g) neq C(X) $ if only if $Z(f) $meet $Z(g)$, hence if only if $f^{2}+g^{2}$ is not a unit of $C(X)$.




Can you give me more information about the above result?
Why can we say" $(f,g) neq C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) neq emptyset$ or



$(f,g) = C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) = emptyset$











share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Theorem:



    a: If $I$is an ideal in $C(X)$ , then the family $Z[I] = { Z(f) : f in I } $ is a $z$-filter on $X$.



    b: if $mathbf{F}$ is a $z$-filter on $X$, then the family $Z^{-1} [ mathbf{F} ] = { f : Z(f) in mathbf{F} }$ is an ideal in $C(X)$.



    Remark:



    $(f,g) neq C(X) $ if only if $Z(f) $meet $Z(g)$, hence if only if $f^{2}+g^{2}$ is not a unit of $C(X)$.




    Can you give me more information about the above result?
    Why can we say" $(f,g) neq C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) neq emptyset$ or



    $(f,g) = C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) = emptyset$











    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Theorem:



      a: If $I$is an ideal in $C(X)$ , then the family $Z[I] = { Z(f) : f in I } $ is a $z$-filter on $X$.



      b: if $mathbf{F}$ is a $z$-filter on $X$, then the family $Z^{-1} [ mathbf{F} ] = { f : Z(f) in mathbf{F} }$ is an ideal in $C(X)$.



      Remark:



      $(f,g) neq C(X) $ if only if $Z(f) $meet $Z(g)$, hence if only if $f^{2}+g^{2}$ is not a unit of $C(X)$.




      Can you give me more information about the above result?
      Why can we say" $(f,g) neq C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) neq emptyset$ or



      $(f,g) = C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) = emptyset$











      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Theorem:



      a: If $I$is an ideal in $C(X)$ , then the family $Z[I] = { Z(f) : f in I } $ is a $z$-filter on $X$.



      b: if $mathbf{F}$ is a $z$-filter on $X$, then the family $Z^{-1} [ mathbf{F} ] = { f : Z(f) in mathbf{F} }$ is an ideal in $C(X)$.



      Remark:



      $(f,g) neq C(X) $ if only if $Z(f) $meet $Z(g)$, hence if only if $f^{2}+g^{2}$ is not a unit of $C(X)$.




      Can you give me more information about the above result?
      Why can we say" $(f,g) neq C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) neq emptyset$ or



      $(f,g) = C(X) Longleftrightarrow Z(f) cap Z(g) = emptyset$








      general-topology filters






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 30 '18 at 16:53









      Eric Wofsey

      190k14216348




      190k14216348










      asked Dec 30 '18 at 15:57







      user387219





























          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          I am assuming $C(X)$ denotes the set of real valued (continuous) functions on $X$.



          First of all, notice that the two equivalences are equivalent, because $A$ is equivalent to $B$ if and only if $neg A$ is equivalent to $neg B$ .



          Then if $(f,g) = C(X)$, there are $h,k$ such that $fh+gk =1$. If $xin Z(f)cap Z(g)$, then $0=1$. Thus $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$.



          Conversely, if $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$, then $f^2 + g^2$ never vanishes (because we're considering real valued functions), so it's invertible in $C(X)$, and is in $(f,g)$ , so $(f,g) = C(X)$ .






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













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            1












            $begingroup$

            I am assuming $C(X)$ denotes the set of real valued (continuous) functions on $X$.



            First of all, notice that the two equivalences are equivalent, because $A$ is equivalent to $B$ if and only if $neg A$ is equivalent to $neg B$ .



            Then if $(f,g) = C(X)$, there are $h,k$ such that $fh+gk =1$. If $xin Z(f)cap Z(g)$, then $0=1$. Thus $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$.



            Conversely, if $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$, then $f^2 + g^2$ never vanishes (because we're considering real valued functions), so it's invertible in $C(X)$, and is in $(f,g)$ , so $(f,g) = C(X)$ .






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              I am assuming $C(X)$ denotes the set of real valued (continuous) functions on $X$.



              First of all, notice that the two equivalences are equivalent, because $A$ is equivalent to $B$ if and only if $neg A$ is equivalent to $neg B$ .



              Then if $(f,g) = C(X)$, there are $h,k$ such that $fh+gk =1$. If $xin Z(f)cap Z(g)$, then $0=1$. Thus $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$.



              Conversely, if $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$, then $f^2 + g^2$ never vanishes (because we're considering real valued functions), so it's invertible in $C(X)$, and is in $(f,g)$ , so $(f,g) = C(X)$ .






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                I am assuming $C(X)$ denotes the set of real valued (continuous) functions on $X$.



                First of all, notice that the two equivalences are equivalent, because $A$ is equivalent to $B$ if and only if $neg A$ is equivalent to $neg B$ .



                Then if $(f,g) = C(X)$, there are $h,k$ such that $fh+gk =1$. If $xin Z(f)cap Z(g)$, then $0=1$. Thus $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$.



                Conversely, if $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$, then $f^2 + g^2$ never vanishes (because we're considering real valued functions), so it's invertible in $C(X)$, and is in $(f,g)$ , so $(f,g) = C(X)$ .






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                I am assuming $C(X)$ denotes the set of real valued (continuous) functions on $X$.



                First of all, notice that the two equivalences are equivalent, because $A$ is equivalent to $B$ if and only if $neg A$ is equivalent to $neg B$ .



                Then if $(f,g) = C(X)$, there are $h,k$ such that $fh+gk =1$. If $xin Z(f)cap Z(g)$, then $0=1$. Thus $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$.



                Conversely, if $Z(f)cap Z(g)=emptyset$, then $f^2 + g^2$ never vanishes (because we're considering real valued functions), so it's invertible in $C(X)$, and is in $(f,g)$ , so $(f,g) = C(X)$ .







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 30 '18 at 16:12









                MaxMax

                15.5k11143




                15.5k11143






























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