Theorem 11.33 rudin












1












$begingroup$


Please I have a slight confusion with the notation used by Rudin in the following proof.




11.33 Theorem. If $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b],$ then $f$ is Lebesgue integrable on $[a,b]$ with respect to the Lebesgue measure $m$ and
$$ int_a^b f dx = mathscr{R} int_a^b f dx $$
Where $mathscr{R} int$ denotes the Riemann integral, while $int$ denotes the Lebesgue integral.



Proof Suppose $f$ is bounded. Then there exists a sequence ${P_k}$ of partitions of $[a,b]$ such that $P_{k+1}$ is a refinement of $P_k$ for each $k$ and
$$ lim_{ktoinfty} L(P_k,f) = mathscr{R}underline{int_a^b} f dx, quad lim_{ktoinfty} U(P_k,f) = mathscr{R}overline{int_a^b} f dx.
$$

Where $L(P_k), U(P_k)$ are the upper and lower sums respectively. If $P_k={a=x_0<x_1<dots<x_n=b},$ these are defined as,
$$ L(P_k,f) = sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-x_{i-1})m_i, quad U(P_k,f) = sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-x_{i-1})M_i,$$
where $M_i = sup_{xin[x_{i-1},x_i]} f(x)$ and $m_i = inf_{xin[x_{i-1},x_i]} f(x).$



We then define functions $U,L$ as $U_k(a)=L_k(a)=f(a)$ and for each $x in(x_{i-1},x_i],$ $1leq i leq n,$ $U_k(x)=M_i$ and $L_k(x)=m_i.$ Then for all $xin [a,b],$
$$ L(P_k,f) = int_a^b L_k dx, quad U(P_k,f) = int_a^b U_k dx, $$
and $$L_1(x) leq L_2(x) leq dots leq f(x) leq dots leq U_2(x) leq U_1(x). $$
There the sequence of functions $L_k, U_k$ converge point-wise on $[a,b],$ so let $L, U$ be the limit functions respectively. Then $L$ and $U$ are bounded measurable functions on $[a,b]$ and for any $x in [a,b],$
$$ L(x) leq f(x) leq U(x), $$
and by the monotone convergence theorem,
$$
int_a^b L(x) dx = mathscr{R} underline{int_a^b} f dx, quad int_a^b U(x) dx = mathscr{R} overline{int_a^b} f dx.
$$

Since $f$ is Riemann integrable, the upper and lower Riemann integrals are equal. Since $L(x) leq U(x),$ it follows that $L(x) = U(x)$ almost everywhere on [a,b].



Then $L(x) = f(x) = U(x)$ almost everywhere on $[a,b],$ so $f$ is measurable and the result follows.




I do understand the idea of the proof but the definition of the partition $P_k={a=x_0<x_1<dots<x_n=b}$. Shouldn't the end point depend on $k$ and not $n$?



Edit: By the explanation of @Ben W, how then is $$L_1(x) leq L_2(x) leq dots leq f(x) leq dots leq U_2(x) leq U_1(x). $$ obtained.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Please I have a slight confusion with the notation used by Rudin in the following proof.




    11.33 Theorem. If $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b],$ then $f$ is Lebesgue integrable on $[a,b]$ with respect to the Lebesgue measure $m$ and
    $$ int_a^b f dx = mathscr{R} int_a^b f dx $$
    Where $mathscr{R} int$ denotes the Riemann integral, while $int$ denotes the Lebesgue integral.



    Proof Suppose $f$ is bounded. Then there exists a sequence ${P_k}$ of partitions of $[a,b]$ such that $P_{k+1}$ is a refinement of $P_k$ for each $k$ and
    $$ lim_{ktoinfty} L(P_k,f) = mathscr{R}underline{int_a^b} f dx, quad lim_{ktoinfty} U(P_k,f) = mathscr{R}overline{int_a^b} f dx.
    $$

    Where $L(P_k), U(P_k)$ are the upper and lower sums respectively. If $P_k={a=x_0<x_1<dots<x_n=b},$ these are defined as,
    $$ L(P_k,f) = sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-x_{i-1})m_i, quad U(P_k,f) = sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-x_{i-1})M_i,$$
    where $M_i = sup_{xin[x_{i-1},x_i]} f(x)$ and $m_i = inf_{xin[x_{i-1},x_i]} f(x).$



    We then define functions $U,L$ as $U_k(a)=L_k(a)=f(a)$ and for each $x in(x_{i-1},x_i],$ $1leq i leq n,$ $U_k(x)=M_i$ and $L_k(x)=m_i.$ Then for all $xin [a,b],$
    $$ L(P_k,f) = int_a^b L_k dx, quad U(P_k,f) = int_a^b U_k dx, $$
    and $$L_1(x) leq L_2(x) leq dots leq f(x) leq dots leq U_2(x) leq U_1(x). $$
    There the sequence of functions $L_k, U_k$ converge point-wise on $[a,b],$ so let $L, U$ be the limit functions respectively. Then $L$ and $U$ are bounded measurable functions on $[a,b]$ and for any $x in [a,b],$
    $$ L(x) leq f(x) leq U(x), $$
    and by the monotone convergence theorem,
    $$
    int_a^b L(x) dx = mathscr{R} underline{int_a^b} f dx, quad int_a^b U(x) dx = mathscr{R} overline{int_a^b} f dx.
    $$

    Since $f$ is Riemann integrable, the upper and lower Riemann integrals are equal. Since $L(x) leq U(x),$ it follows that $L(x) = U(x)$ almost everywhere on [a,b].



    Then $L(x) = f(x) = U(x)$ almost everywhere on $[a,b],$ so $f$ is measurable and the result follows.




    I do understand the idea of the proof but the definition of the partition $P_k={a=x_0<x_1<dots<x_n=b}$. Shouldn't the end point depend on $k$ and not $n$?



    Edit: By the explanation of @Ben W, how then is $$L_1(x) leq L_2(x) leq dots leq f(x) leq dots leq U_2(x) leq U_1(x). $$ obtained.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Please I have a slight confusion with the notation used by Rudin in the following proof.




      11.33 Theorem. If $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b],$ then $f$ is Lebesgue integrable on $[a,b]$ with respect to the Lebesgue measure $m$ and
      $$ int_a^b f dx = mathscr{R} int_a^b f dx $$
      Where $mathscr{R} int$ denotes the Riemann integral, while $int$ denotes the Lebesgue integral.



      Proof Suppose $f$ is bounded. Then there exists a sequence ${P_k}$ of partitions of $[a,b]$ such that $P_{k+1}$ is a refinement of $P_k$ for each $k$ and
      $$ lim_{ktoinfty} L(P_k,f) = mathscr{R}underline{int_a^b} f dx, quad lim_{ktoinfty} U(P_k,f) = mathscr{R}overline{int_a^b} f dx.
      $$

      Where $L(P_k), U(P_k)$ are the upper and lower sums respectively. If $P_k={a=x_0<x_1<dots<x_n=b},$ these are defined as,
      $$ L(P_k,f) = sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-x_{i-1})m_i, quad U(P_k,f) = sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-x_{i-1})M_i,$$
      where $M_i = sup_{xin[x_{i-1},x_i]} f(x)$ and $m_i = inf_{xin[x_{i-1},x_i]} f(x).$



      We then define functions $U,L$ as $U_k(a)=L_k(a)=f(a)$ and for each $x in(x_{i-1},x_i],$ $1leq i leq n,$ $U_k(x)=M_i$ and $L_k(x)=m_i.$ Then for all $xin [a,b],$
      $$ L(P_k,f) = int_a^b L_k dx, quad U(P_k,f) = int_a^b U_k dx, $$
      and $$L_1(x) leq L_2(x) leq dots leq f(x) leq dots leq U_2(x) leq U_1(x). $$
      There the sequence of functions $L_k, U_k$ converge point-wise on $[a,b],$ so let $L, U$ be the limit functions respectively. Then $L$ and $U$ are bounded measurable functions on $[a,b]$ and for any $x in [a,b],$
      $$ L(x) leq f(x) leq U(x), $$
      and by the monotone convergence theorem,
      $$
      int_a^b L(x) dx = mathscr{R} underline{int_a^b} f dx, quad int_a^b U(x) dx = mathscr{R} overline{int_a^b} f dx.
      $$

      Since $f$ is Riemann integrable, the upper and lower Riemann integrals are equal. Since $L(x) leq U(x),$ it follows that $L(x) = U(x)$ almost everywhere on [a,b].



      Then $L(x) = f(x) = U(x)$ almost everywhere on $[a,b],$ so $f$ is measurable and the result follows.




      I do understand the idea of the proof but the definition of the partition $P_k={a=x_0<x_1<dots<x_n=b}$. Shouldn't the end point depend on $k$ and not $n$?



      Edit: By the explanation of @Ben W, how then is $$L_1(x) leq L_2(x) leq dots leq f(x) leq dots leq U_2(x) leq U_1(x). $$ obtained.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Please I have a slight confusion with the notation used by Rudin in the following proof.




      11.33 Theorem. If $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b],$ then $f$ is Lebesgue integrable on $[a,b]$ with respect to the Lebesgue measure $m$ and
      $$ int_a^b f dx = mathscr{R} int_a^b f dx $$
      Where $mathscr{R} int$ denotes the Riemann integral, while $int$ denotes the Lebesgue integral.



      Proof Suppose $f$ is bounded. Then there exists a sequence ${P_k}$ of partitions of $[a,b]$ such that $P_{k+1}$ is a refinement of $P_k$ for each $k$ and
      $$ lim_{ktoinfty} L(P_k,f) = mathscr{R}underline{int_a^b} f dx, quad lim_{ktoinfty} U(P_k,f) = mathscr{R}overline{int_a^b} f dx.
      $$

      Where $L(P_k), U(P_k)$ are the upper and lower sums respectively. If $P_k={a=x_0<x_1<dots<x_n=b},$ these are defined as,
      $$ L(P_k,f) = sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-x_{i-1})m_i, quad U(P_k,f) = sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-x_{i-1})M_i,$$
      where $M_i = sup_{xin[x_{i-1},x_i]} f(x)$ and $m_i = inf_{xin[x_{i-1},x_i]} f(x).$



      We then define functions $U,L$ as $U_k(a)=L_k(a)=f(a)$ and for each $x in(x_{i-1},x_i],$ $1leq i leq n,$ $U_k(x)=M_i$ and $L_k(x)=m_i.$ Then for all $xin [a,b],$
      $$ L(P_k,f) = int_a^b L_k dx, quad U(P_k,f) = int_a^b U_k dx, $$
      and $$L_1(x) leq L_2(x) leq dots leq f(x) leq dots leq U_2(x) leq U_1(x). $$
      There the sequence of functions $L_k, U_k$ converge point-wise on $[a,b],$ so let $L, U$ be the limit functions respectively. Then $L$ and $U$ are bounded measurable functions on $[a,b]$ and for any $x in [a,b],$
      $$ L(x) leq f(x) leq U(x), $$
      and by the monotone convergence theorem,
      $$
      int_a^b L(x) dx = mathscr{R} underline{int_a^b} f dx, quad int_a^b U(x) dx = mathscr{R} overline{int_a^b} f dx.
      $$

      Since $f$ is Riemann integrable, the upper and lower Riemann integrals are equal. Since $L(x) leq U(x),$ it follows that $L(x) = U(x)$ almost everywhere on [a,b].



      Then $L(x) = f(x) = U(x)$ almost everywhere on $[a,b],$ so $f$ is measurable and the result follows.




      I do understand the idea of the proof but the definition of the partition $P_k={a=x_0<x_1<dots<x_n=b}$. Shouldn't the end point depend on $k$ and not $n$?



      Edit: By the explanation of @Ben W, how then is $$L_1(x) leq L_2(x) leq dots leq f(x) leq dots leq U_2(x) leq U_1(x). $$ obtained.







      lebesgue-integral riemann-integration






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      edited Jan 1 at 21:41









      Namaste

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      asked Jan 1 at 21:00







      user397197





























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          $begingroup$

          For each $k$ there is $n(k)$ such that
          $$P_k={x_0<x_1<cdots<x_{n(k)}}$$
          However, it is more convenient just to write $n$ instead of $n(k)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            For each $k$ there is $n(k)$ such that
            $$P_k={x_0<x_1<cdots<x_{n(k)}}$$
            However, it is more convenient just to write $n$ instead of $n(k)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              For each $k$ there is $n(k)$ such that
              $$P_k={x_0<x_1<cdots<x_{n(k)}}$$
              However, it is more convenient just to write $n$ instead of $n(k)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                For each $k$ there is $n(k)$ such that
                $$P_k={x_0<x_1<cdots<x_{n(k)}}$$
                However, it is more convenient just to write $n$ instead of $n(k)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                For each $k$ there is $n(k)$ such that
                $$P_k={x_0<x_1<cdots<x_{n(k)}}$$
                However, it is more convenient just to write $n$ instead of $n(k)$.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 1 at 21:03









                Ben WBen W

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