How to show that the given set is open?












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$begingroup$


Consider the following subsets of the plane $mathbb{R}^2$:



$$X={(x,y)|y=0}cup {(x,y)|x>0text{ and}; y=1/x}$$



How to show that $A$ and $B$ are open in $X$ under subspace topology.
Efforts:



Let's define $A={(x,y)|y=0}$ and $B={(x,y)|x>0text{ and}; y=1/x}$.



To show that $A$ is open I need to find an open set $N$ of $mathbb{R}^2$ such that $Xcap N=A$. I am not able to proceed further.



I welcome any hints.



Thanks for reading.










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Consider the following subsets of the plane $mathbb{R}^2$:



    $$X={(x,y)|y=0}cup {(x,y)|x>0text{ and}; y=1/x}$$



    How to show that $A$ and $B$ are open in $X$ under subspace topology.
    Efforts:



    Let's define $A={(x,y)|y=0}$ and $B={(x,y)|x>0text{ and}; y=1/x}$.



    To show that $A$ is open I need to find an open set $N$ of $mathbb{R}^2$ such that $Xcap N=A$. I am not able to proceed further.



    I welcome any hints.



    Thanks for reading.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      0



      $begingroup$


      Consider the following subsets of the plane $mathbb{R}^2$:



      $$X={(x,y)|y=0}cup {(x,y)|x>0text{ and}; y=1/x}$$



      How to show that $A$ and $B$ are open in $X$ under subspace topology.
      Efforts:



      Let's define $A={(x,y)|y=0}$ and $B={(x,y)|x>0text{ and}; y=1/x}$.



      To show that $A$ is open I need to find an open set $N$ of $mathbb{R}^2$ such that $Xcap N=A$. I am not able to proceed further.



      I welcome any hints.



      Thanks for reading.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Consider the following subsets of the plane $mathbb{R}^2$:



      $$X={(x,y)|y=0}cup {(x,y)|x>0text{ and}; y=1/x}$$



      How to show that $A$ and $B$ are open in $X$ under subspace topology.
      Efforts:



      Let's define $A={(x,y)|y=0}$ and $B={(x,y)|x>0text{ and}; y=1/x}$.



      To show that $A$ is open I need to find an open set $N$ of $mathbb{R}^2$ such that $Xcap N=A$. I am not able to proceed further.



      I welcome any hints.



      Thanks for reading.







      general-topology






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      asked Jan 6 at 10:59









      StammeringMathematicianStammeringMathematician

      2,7951324




      2,7951324






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Note that both $A$ and $B$ are closed in $mathbb R^2$ (why?), and so $M:=mathbb R^2backslash B$ and $N:=mathbb R^2backslash A$ are open in $mathbb R^2$. Consequently, since $X=Acup B$ and $Acap B=emptyset$, we have $A=Xcap M$ and $B=Xcap N$, showing that both $A$ and $B$ are also open in $X$.



          Note that this implies that $A$ and $B$ are also closed in $X$, since $A=Xbackslash B$ and $B=Xbackslash A$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            Hint: It might be easier to show that both $A,B$ are closed in $X$, and then since $X = A cup B$, we immediately have that $A,B$ are both open in $X$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              2 Answers
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              active

              oldest

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

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              active

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              2












              $begingroup$

              Note that both $A$ and $B$ are closed in $mathbb R^2$ (why?), and so $M:=mathbb R^2backslash B$ and $N:=mathbb R^2backslash A$ are open in $mathbb R^2$. Consequently, since $X=Acup B$ and $Acap B=emptyset$, we have $A=Xcap M$ and $B=Xcap N$, showing that both $A$ and $B$ are also open in $X$.



              Note that this implies that $A$ and $B$ are also closed in $X$, since $A=Xbackslash B$ and $B=Xbackslash A$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                Note that both $A$ and $B$ are closed in $mathbb R^2$ (why?), and so $M:=mathbb R^2backslash B$ and $N:=mathbb R^2backslash A$ are open in $mathbb R^2$. Consequently, since $X=Acup B$ and $Acap B=emptyset$, we have $A=Xcap M$ and $B=Xcap N$, showing that both $A$ and $B$ are also open in $X$.



                Note that this implies that $A$ and $B$ are also closed in $X$, since $A=Xbackslash B$ and $B=Xbackslash A$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Note that both $A$ and $B$ are closed in $mathbb R^2$ (why?), and so $M:=mathbb R^2backslash B$ and $N:=mathbb R^2backslash A$ are open in $mathbb R^2$. Consequently, since $X=Acup B$ and $Acap B=emptyset$, we have $A=Xcap M$ and $B=Xcap N$, showing that both $A$ and $B$ are also open in $X$.



                  Note that this implies that $A$ and $B$ are also closed in $X$, since $A=Xbackslash B$ and $B=Xbackslash A$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Note that both $A$ and $B$ are closed in $mathbb R^2$ (why?), and so $M:=mathbb R^2backslash B$ and $N:=mathbb R^2backslash A$ are open in $mathbb R^2$. Consequently, since $X=Acup B$ and $Acap B=emptyset$, we have $A=Xcap M$ and $B=Xcap N$, showing that both $A$ and $B$ are also open in $X$.



                  Note that this implies that $A$ and $B$ are also closed in $X$, since $A=Xbackslash B$ and $B=Xbackslash A$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 6 at 11:45









                  sranthropsranthrop

                  7,1311925




                  7,1311925























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      Hint: It might be easier to show that both $A,B$ are closed in $X$, and then since $X = A cup B$, we immediately have that $A,B$ are both open in $X$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Hint: It might be easier to show that both $A,B$ are closed in $X$, and then since $X = A cup B$, we immediately have that $A,B$ are both open in $X$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          Hint: It might be easier to show that both $A,B$ are closed in $X$, and then since $X = A cup B$, we immediately have that $A,B$ are both open in $X$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Hint: It might be easier to show that both $A,B$ are closed in $X$, and then since $X = A cup B$, we immediately have that $A,B$ are both open in $X$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 6 at 11:39









                          Adam HigginsAdam Higgins

                          615113




                          615113






























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