A matrix involving distances of $n$ points in $mathbb{R}^3$
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Let $x_1,ldots ,x_n$ be $n$ distinct points in $mathbb{R}^3$. Consider the $ntimes n$ real symmetric matrix $A$ defined by $A_{ij}:=|x_i-x_j|$. I would like to show that
$$Ker,A;cap,{vinmathbb{R}^n,:, v_1+v_2 +ldots +v_n=0}={0}$$
Thank you for any suggestions.
linear-algebra matrices
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show 4 more comments
up vote
13
down vote
favorite
Let $x_1,ldots ,x_n$ be $n$ distinct points in $mathbb{R}^3$. Consider the $ntimes n$ real symmetric matrix $A$ defined by $A_{ij}:=|x_i-x_j|$. I would like to show that
$$Ker,A;cap,{vinmathbb{R}^n,:, v_1+v_2 +ldots +v_n=0}={0}$$
Thank you for any suggestions.
linear-algebra matrices
1
Where did this problem come from? Do you have any ideas about how you might solve it?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:17
The question comes as a step of a more general problem in which I have to invert a matrix depending on a parameter. I have no idea of how to solve the problem, as it strongly depends on the underlying combinatorial structure.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:22
2
Have you got an example of such a matrix that is singular?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:26
For small $n$ the matrix is actually non-singular. For large $n$ I suspect that a 1-dimensional kernel can occur, but I do not have explicit examples. Of course it would be a nicer and cleaner result if $A$ turns out to be always non-singular.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:30
4
joriki's answer should be relevant.
– user1551
Nov 16 at 16:50
|
show 4 more comments
up vote
13
down vote
favorite
up vote
13
down vote
favorite
Let $x_1,ldots ,x_n$ be $n$ distinct points in $mathbb{R}^3$. Consider the $ntimes n$ real symmetric matrix $A$ defined by $A_{ij}:=|x_i-x_j|$. I would like to show that
$$Ker,A;cap,{vinmathbb{R}^n,:, v_1+v_2 +ldots +v_n=0}={0}$$
Thank you for any suggestions.
linear-algebra matrices
Let $x_1,ldots ,x_n$ be $n$ distinct points in $mathbb{R}^3$. Consider the $ntimes n$ real symmetric matrix $A$ defined by $A_{ij}:=|x_i-x_j|$. I would like to show that
$$Ker,A;cap,{vinmathbb{R}^n,:, v_1+v_2 +ldots +v_n=0}={0}$$
Thank you for any suggestions.
linear-algebra matrices
linear-algebra matrices
asked Nov 16 at 15:10
Capublanca
940514
940514
1
Where did this problem come from? Do you have any ideas about how you might solve it?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:17
The question comes as a step of a more general problem in which I have to invert a matrix depending on a parameter. I have no idea of how to solve the problem, as it strongly depends on the underlying combinatorial structure.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:22
2
Have you got an example of such a matrix that is singular?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:26
For small $n$ the matrix is actually non-singular. For large $n$ I suspect that a 1-dimensional kernel can occur, but I do not have explicit examples. Of course it would be a nicer and cleaner result if $A$ turns out to be always non-singular.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:30
4
joriki's answer should be relevant.
– user1551
Nov 16 at 16:50
|
show 4 more comments
1
Where did this problem come from? Do you have any ideas about how you might solve it?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:17
The question comes as a step of a more general problem in which I have to invert a matrix depending on a parameter. I have no idea of how to solve the problem, as it strongly depends on the underlying combinatorial structure.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:22
2
Have you got an example of such a matrix that is singular?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:26
For small $n$ the matrix is actually non-singular. For large $n$ I suspect that a 1-dimensional kernel can occur, but I do not have explicit examples. Of course it would be a nicer and cleaner result if $A$ turns out to be always non-singular.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:30
4
joriki's answer should be relevant.
– user1551
Nov 16 at 16:50
1
1
Where did this problem come from? Do you have any ideas about how you might solve it?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:17
Where did this problem come from? Do you have any ideas about how you might solve it?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:17
The question comes as a step of a more general problem in which I have to invert a matrix depending on a parameter. I have no idea of how to solve the problem, as it strongly depends on the underlying combinatorial structure.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:22
The question comes as a step of a more general problem in which I have to invert a matrix depending on a parameter. I have no idea of how to solve the problem, as it strongly depends on the underlying combinatorial structure.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:22
2
2
Have you got an example of such a matrix that is singular?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:26
Have you got an example of such a matrix that is singular?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:26
For small $n$ the matrix is actually non-singular. For large $n$ I suspect that a 1-dimensional kernel can occur, but I do not have explicit examples. Of course it would be a nicer and cleaner result if $A$ turns out to be always non-singular.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:30
For small $n$ the matrix is actually non-singular. For large $n$ I suspect that a 1-dimensional kernel can occur, but I do not have explicit examples. Of course it would be a nicer and cleaner result if $A$ turns out to be always non-singular.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:30
4
4
joriki's answer should be relevant.
– user1551
Nov 16 at 16:50
joriki's answer should be relevant.
– user1551
Nov 16 at 16:50
|
show 4 more comments
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
$defRR{mathbb{R}}$Numerical experiments suggest that this matrix is negative semidefinite on the plane $sum v_i=0$. Specifically, I generated 20 sets of 10 points each, drawn uniformly from the unit cube, and this was true every time. I repeated the experiment with points in 2, 4 and 5 dimensions, and the same held.
I am reminded of this answer by Noam Elkies but can't make a precise connection.
Switching this answer to CW to write up darij's proof from the comments. We will show that:
If $x_i$ are any $n$ points in $RR^d$ and $v_i$ are any scalars with $sum v_i=0$, then $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$ and
If the $x_i$ are distinct and the $v_i$ are not all $0$, we have strict inequality.
The latter shows that the matrix $left[ |x_i-x_j| right]$ times the vector $left[ v_i right]$ is nonzero. We start, however, by proving the former. We turn to the issue of when zero occurs after the horizontal line.
We start with the averaging trick: By rotational and scaling invariance, we can see that there is some positive $c$ such that
$$int_{|w|=1} left| langle w cdot x rangle right| = c |x|.$$
So
$$sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| = c^{-1} int_{|w|=1} sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|$$
and thus it is sufficient to show $sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|leq 0$ for a particular vector $w$. Now, $w cdot (x_i-x_j)$ only depends on the orthogonal projections of $x_i$ and $x_j$ onto the line $RR w$, so we may (and do) assume all the $x_i$ lie on a line. Our goal is now to show, for any $n$ values $x_i in RR$, that $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$.
We have $|z| = max(z,0) + max(-z,0)$, so $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j|=2 sum v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0)$.
We use the notation $left[ mbox{statement} right]$ to mean $1$ if the statement is true and $0$ if it is false. So
$$max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt$$
and
$$sum_{i,j} v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} sum_{i,j} v_i v_j left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt.$$ So it is enough to show that, for any $t$, we have
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j leq 0 . $$
Let $I = { i : x_i < t }$ and $J = { i : x_j > t }$. (For almost all $t$, none of the $x_i$ equal $t$, so we can disregard the boundary case.) Then
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j = sum_{i in I, j in J} v_i v_j = left( sum_{i in I} v_i right) left( sum_{j in J} v_j right) = - left(sum_{i in I} v_i right)^2 leq 0 .$$
In the final equality, we have finally used the hypothesis $sum v_k=0$.
Now, let's consider what happens for distinct $x_i$. As long as the $x_i$ as distinct, for almost as $w$, the orthogonal projections of the $x_i$ onto $RR w$ will stay distinct. In order to get $0$, we must get $0$ from all these choices of $w$. Let's say the orthogonal projections are ordered as $x_1 < x_2 < cdots < x_n$. Once again, we must get $0$ from every choice of $t$. So we must have $left( sum_{i=1}^k v_i right)^2 =0$ for all $k$, and this means that all $v_i$ are zero.
Yes, it is negative semidefinite on the plane given by $sum_i v_i = 0$. Here is a sketch of a proof (feel free to write it up in detail): ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:13
1
... Step 1: Fix $n$ reals $v_1, v_2, ldots, v_n$ satisfying $sum_i v_i = 0$. Our goal is to prove that $sum_{i, j} left|x_i - x_jright| v_i v_j leq 0$ for any $n$ points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^m$ for any $m geq 0$. (There is no reason to restrict oneself to $m = 3$.) By the classical "averaging over the sphere" trick, it suffices to prove this inequality only for $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^1$, because each $left|x_i - x_jright|$ is just a scalar factor times ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:15
... the average of $w^perp x_i - w^perp x_j$ where $w$ ranges over the unit sphere in $mathbb{R}^m$ (uniformly in Haar measure). (I hope I'm getting this trick correct; if not, replace the unit sphere by $operatorname{SO}left(m, mathbb{R}right)$ or something similar. I don't really know what I'm talking about when I'm talking integration.) ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:16
2
... Step 2: So let's prove this inequality for $m = 1$. I think this was an olympiad problem not too long ago (USAMO?), but I can't find it, so here's the idea of the solution: Let $I$ be a finite interval containing all points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}$, and let us use the Iverson bracket notation. Then, $left|x_i-x_jright| = int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt$ for all $i$ and $j$. Thus, ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
1
... we have $sum_{i,j} left|x_i-x_jright| v_i v_j = sum_{i,j} int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt v_i v_j = int_I left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) dt leq 0$, because each $t in I$ satisfies $sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_j = -sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_i$ and thus $left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) = - left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright)^2 leq 0$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
-1
down vote
So, if I understand it correctly, you want to proof that $Ax=0 implies x=0$, correct?
So, we simply need to show that $det(A) neq 0$.
Let $A= begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}$ where $a_{ij} := d(i,j) := |x_i-x_j|$
begin{align}
det A &= det
begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}
\ &= a_{11} a_{22} a_{33} +a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} - a_{13} a_{22} a_{31} - a_{12} a_{21} a_{33} - a_{11} a_{23} a_{32}
\ &= 0+a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} -0-0-0
\ &= 2a_{12}a_{13} a_{23} > 0
end{align}
As $a_{ii}=d(i,i) = 0$ and $d(i,j)>0$ for $ineq j$
Do you know that there exist natural numbers greater than 3?
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 13:25
Eh, my bad. In the first sentence he went with points in $mathbb{R}^3$, so I went with that
– Sudix
Nov 24 at 16:04
Ok, no problem.
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 19:12
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
$defRR{mathbb{R}}$Numerical experiments suggest that this matrix is negative semidefinite on the plane $sum v_i=0$. Specifically, I generated 20 sets of 10 points each, drawn uniformly from the unit cube, and this was true every time. I repeated the experiment with points in 2, 4 and 5 dimensions, and the same held.
I am reminded of this answer by Noam Elkies but can't make a precise connection.
Switching this answer to CW to write up darij's proof from the comments. We will show that:
If $x_i$ are any $n$ points in $RR^d$ and $v_i$ are any scalars with $sum v_i=0$, then $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$ and
If the $x_i$ are distinct and the $v_i$ are not all $0$, we have strict inequality.
The latter shows that the matrix $left[ |x_i-x_j| right]$ times the vector $left[ v_i right]$ is nonzero. We start, however, by proving the former. We turn to the issue of when zero occurs after the horizontal line.
We start with the averaging trick: By rotational and scaling invariance, we can see that there is some positive $c$ such that
$$int_{|w|=1} left| langle w cdot x rangle right| = c |x|.$$
So
$$sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| = c^{-1} int_{|w|=1} sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|$$
and thus it is sufficient to show $sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|leq 0$ for a particular vector $w$. Now, $w cdot (x_i-x_j)$ only depends on the orthogonal projections of $x_i$ and $x_j$ onto the line $RR w$, so we may (and do) assume all the $x_i$ lie on a line. Our goal is now to show, for any $n$ values $x_i in RR$, that $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$.
We have $|z| = max(z,0) + max(-z,0)$, so $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j|=2 sum v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0)$.
We use the notation $left[ mbox{statement} right]$ to mean $1$ if the statement is true and $0$ if it is false. So
$$max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt$$
and
$$sum_{i,j} v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} sum_{i,j} v_i v_j left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt.$$ So it is enough to show that, for any $t$, we have
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j leq 0 . $$
Let $I = { i : x_i < t }$ and $J = { i : x_j > t }$. (For almost all $t$, none of the $x_i$ equal $t$, so we can disregard the boundary case.) Then
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j = sum_{i in I, j in J} v_i v_j = left( sum_{i in I} v_i right) left( sum_{j in J} v_j right) = - left(sum_{i in I} v_i right)^2 leq 0 .$$
In the final equality, we have finally used the hypothesis $sum v_k=0$.
Now, let's consider what happens for distinct $x_i$. As long as the $x_i$ as distinct, for almost as $w$, the orthogonal projections of the $x_i$ onto $RR w$ will stay distinct. In order to get $0$, we must get $0$ from all these choices of $w$. Let's say the orthogonal projections are ordered as $x_1 < x_2 < cdots < x_n$. Once again, we must get $0$ from every choice of $t$. So we must have $left( sum_{i=1}^k v_i right)^2 =0$ for all $k$, and this means that all $v_i$ are zero.
Yes, it is negative semidefinite on the plane given by $sum_i v_i = 0$. Here is a sketch of a proof (feel free to write it up in detail): ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:13
1
... Step 1: Fix $n$ reals $v_1, v_2, ldots, v_n$ satisfying $sum_i v_i = 0$. Our goal is to prove that $sum_{i, j} left|x_i - x_jright| v_i v_j leq 0$ for any $n$ points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^m$ for any $m geq 0$. (There is no reason to restrict oneself to $m = 3$.) By the classical "averaging over the sphere" trick, it suffices to prove this inequality only for $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^1$, because each $left|x_i - x_jright|$ is just a scalar factor times ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:15
... the average of $w^perp x_i - w^perp x_j$ where $w$ ranges over the unit sphere in $mathbb{R}^m$ (uniformly in Haar measure). (I hope I'm getting this trick correct; if not, replace the unit sphere by $operatorname{SO}left(m, mathbb{R}right)$ or something similar. I don't really know what I'm talking about when I'm talking integration.) ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:16
2
... Step 2: So let's prove this inequality for $m = 1$. I think this was an olympiad problem not too long ago (USAMO?), but I can't find it, so here's the idea of the solution: Let $I$ be a finite interval containing all points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}$, and let us use the Iverson bracket notation. Then, $left|x_i-x_jright| = int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt$ for all $i$ and $j$. Thus, ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
1
... we have $sum_{i,j} left|x_i-x_jright| v_i v_j = sum_{i,j} int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt v_i v_j = int_I left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) dt leq 0$, because each $t in I$ satisfies $sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_j = -sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_i$ and thus $left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) = - left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright)^2 leq 0$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
$defRR{mathbb{R}}$Numerical experiments suggest that this matrix is negative semidefinite on the plane $sum v_i=0$. Specifically, I generated 20 sets of 10 points each, drawn uniformly from the unit cube, and this was true every time. I repeated the experiment with points in 2, 4 and 5 dimensions, and the same held.
I am reminded of this answer by Noam Elkies but can't make a precise connection.
Switching this answer to CW to write up darij's proof from the comments. We will show that:
If $x_i$ are any $n$ points in $RR^d$ and $v_i$ are any scalars with $sum v_i=0$, then $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$ and
If the $x_i$ are distinct and the $v_i$ are not all $0$, we have strict inequality.
The latter shows that the matrix $left[ |x_i-x_j| right]$ times the vector $left[ v_i right]$ is nonzero. We start, however, by proving the former. We turn to the issue of when zero occurs after the horizontal line.
We start with the averaging trick: By rotational and scaling invariance, we can see that there is some positive $c$ such that
$$int_{|w|=1} left| langle w cdot x rangle right| = c |x|.$$
So
$$sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| = c^{-1} int_{|w|=1} sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|$$
and thus it is sufficient to show $sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|leq 0$ for a particular vector $w$. Now, $w cdot (x_i-x_j)$ only depends on the orthogonal projections of $x_i$ and $x_j$ onto the line $RR w$, so we may (and do) assume all the $x_i$ lie on a line. Our goal is now to show, for any $n$ values $x_i in RR$, that $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$.
We have $|z| = max(z,0) + max(-z,0)$, so $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j|=2 sum v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0)$.
We use the notation $left[ mbox{statement} right]$ to mean $1$ if the statement is true and $0$ if it is false. So
$$max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt$$
and
$$sum_{i,j} v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} sum_{i,j} v_i v_j left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt.$$ So it is enough to show that, for any $t$, we have
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j leq 0 . $$
Let $I = { i : x_i < t }$ and $J = { i : x_j > t }$. (For almost all $t$, none of the $x_i$ equal $t$, so we can disregard the boundary case.) Then
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j = sum_{i in I, j in J} v_i v_j = left( sum_{i in I} v_i right) left( sum_{j in J} v_j right) = - left(sum_{i in I} v_i right)^2 leq 0 .$$
In the final equality, we have finally used the hypothesis $sum v_k=0$.
Now, let's consider what happens for distinct $x_i$. As long as the $x_i$ as distinct, for almost as $w$, the orthogonal projections of the $x_i$ onto $RR w$ will stay distinct. In order to get $0$, we must get $0$ from all these choices of $w$. Let's say the orthogonal projections are ordered as $x_1 < x_2 < cdots < x_n$. Once again, we must get $0$ from every choice of $t$. So we must have $left( sum_{i=1}^k v_i right)^2 =0$ for all $k$, and this means that all $v_i$ are zero.
Yes, it is negative semidefinite on the plane given by $sum_i v_i = 0$. Here is a sketch of a proof (feel free to write it up in detail): ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:13
1
... Step 1: Fix $n$ reals $v_1, v_2, ldots, v_n$ satisfying $sum_i v_i = 0$. Our goal is to prove that $sum_{i, j} left|x_i - x_jright| v_i v_j leq 0$ for any $n$ points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^m$ for any $m geq 0$. (There is no reason to restrict oneself to $m = 3$.) By the classical "averaging over the sphere" trick, it suffices to prove this inequality only for $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^1$, because each $left|x_i - x_jright|$ is just a scalar factor times ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:15
... the average of $w^perp x_i - w^perp x_j$ where $w$ ranges over the unit sphere in $mathbb{R}^m$ (uniformly in Haar measure). (I hope I'm getting this trick correct; if not, replace the unit sphere by $operatorname{SO}left(m, mathbb{R}right)$ or something similar. I don't really know what I'm talking about when I'm talking integration.) ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:16
2
... Step 2: So let's prove this inequality for $m = 1$. I think this was an olympiad problem not too long ago (USAMO?), but I can't find it, so here's the idea of the solution: Let $I$ be a finite interval containing all points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}$, and let us use the Iverson bracket notation. Then, $left|x_i-x_jright| = int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt$ for all $i$ and $j$. Thus, ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
1
... we have $sum_{i,j} left|x_i-x_jright| v_i v_j = sum_{i,j} int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt v_i v_j = int_I left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) dt leq 0$, because each $t in I$ satisfies $sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_j = -sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_i$ and thus $left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) = - left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright)^2 leq 0$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
$defRR{mathbb{R}}$Numerical experiments suggest that this matrix is negative semidefinite on the plane $sum v_i=0$. Specifically, I generated 20 sets of 10 points each, drawn uniformly from the unit cube, and this was true every time. I repeated the experiment with points in 2, 4 and 5 dimensions, and the same held.
I am reminded of this answer by Noam Elkies but can't make a precise connection.
Switching this answer to CW to write up darij's proof from the comments. We will show that:
If $x_i$ are any $n$ points in $RR^d$ and $v_i$ are any scalars with $sum v_i=0$, then $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$ and
If the $x_i$ are distinct and the $v_i$ are not all $0$, we have strict inequality.
The latter shows that the matrix $left[ |x_i-x_j| right]$ times the vector $left[ v_i right]$ is nonzero. We start, however, by proving the former. We turn to the issue of when zero occurs after the horizontal line.
We start with the averaging trick: By rotational and scaling invariance, we can see that there is some positive $c$ such that
$$int_{|w|=1} left| langle w cdot x rangle right| = c |x|.$$
So
$$sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| = c^{-1} int_{|w|=1} sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|$$
and thus it is sufficient to show $sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|leq 0$ for a particular vector $w$. Now, $w cdot (x_i-x_j)$ only depends on the orthogonal projections of $x_i$ and $x_j$ onto the line $RR w$, so we may (and do) assume all the $x_i$ lie on a line. Our goal is now to show, for any $n$ values $x_i in RR$, that $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$.
We have $|z| = max(z,0) + max(-z,0)$, so $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j|=2 sum v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0)$.
We use the notation $left[ mbox{statement} right]$ to mean $1$ if the statement is true and $0$ if it is false. So
$$max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt$$
and
$$sum_{i,j} v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} sum_{i,j} v_i v_j left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt.$$ So it is enough to show that, for any $t$, we have
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j leq 0 . $$
Let $I = { i : x_i < t }$ and $J = { i : x_j > t }$. (For almost all $t$, none of the $x_i$ equal $t$, so we can disregard the boundary case.) Then
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j = sum_{i in I, j in J} v_i v_j = left( sum_{i in I} v_i right) left( sum_{j in J} v_j right) = - left(sum_{i in I} v_i right)^2 leq 0 .$$
In the final equality, we have finally used the hypothesis $sum v_k=0$.
Now, let's consider what happens for distinct $x_i$. As long as the $x_i$ as distinct, for almost as $w$, the orthogonal projections of the $x_i$ onto $RR w$ will stay distinct. In order to get $0$, we must get $0$ from all these choices of $w$. Let's say the orthogonal projections are ordered as $x_1 < x_2 < cdots < x_n$. Once again, we must get $0$ from every choice of $t$. So we must have $left( sum_{i=1}^k v_i right)^2 =0$ for all $k$, and this means that all $v_i$ are zero.
$defRR{mathbb{R}}$Numerical experiments suggest that this matrix is negative semidefinite on the plane $sum v_i=0$. Specifically, I generated 20 sets of 10 points each, drawn uniformly from the unit cube, and this was true every time. I repeated the experiment with points in 2, 4 and 5 dimensions, and the same held.
I am reminded of this answer by Noam Elkies but can't make a precise connection.
Switching this answer to CW to write up darij's proof from the comments. We will show that:
If $x_i$ are any $n$ points in $RR^d$ and $v_i$ are any scalars with $sum v_i=0$, then $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$ and
If the $x_i$ are distinct and the $v_i$ are not all $0$, we have strict inequality.
The latter shows that the matrix $left[ |x_i-x_j| right]$ times the vector $left[ v_i right]$ is nonzero. We start, however, by proving the former. We turn to the issue of when zero occurs after the horizontal line.
We start with the averaging trick: By rotational and scaling invariance, we can see that there is some positive $c$ such that
$$int_{|w|=1} left| langle w cdot x rangle right| = c |x|.$$
So
$$sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| = c^{-1} int_{|w|=1} sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|$$
and thus it is sufficient to show $sum v_i v_j left| langle w cdot (x_i-x_j) rangle right|leq 0$ for a particular vector $w$. Now, $w cdot (x_i-x_j)$ only depends on the orthogonal projections of $x_i$ and $x_j$ onto the line $RR w$, so we may (and do) assume all the $x_i$ lie on a line. Our goal is now to show, for any $n$ values $x_i in RR$, that $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j| leq 0$.
We have $|z| = max(z,0) + max(-z,0)$, so $sum v_i v_j |x_i-x_j|=2 sum v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0)$.
We use the notation $left[ mbox{statement} right]$ to mean $1$ if the statement is true and $0$ if it is false. So
$$max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt$$
and
$$sum_{i,j} v_i v_j max(x_i-x_j,0) = int_{t in RR} sum_{i,j} v_i v_j left[x_j < t < x_i right] dt.$$ So it is enough to show that, for any $t$, we have
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j leq 0 . $$
Let $I = { i : x_i < t }$ and $J = { i : x_j > t }$. (For almost all $t$, none of the $x_i$ equal $t$, so we can disregard the boundary case.) Then
$$sum_{x_i < t < x_j} v_i v_j = sum_{i in I, j in J} v_i v_j = left( sum_{i in I} v_i right) left( sum_{j in J} v_j right) = - left(sum_{i in I} v_i right)^2 leq 0 .$$
In the final equality, we have finally used the hypothesis $sum v_k=0$.
Now, let's consider what happens for distinct $x_i$. As long as the $x_i$ as distinct, for almost as $w$, the orthogonal projections of the $x_i$ onto $RR w$ will stay distinct. In order to get $0$, we must get $0$ from all these choices of $w$. Let's say the orthogonal projections are ordered as $x_1 < x_2 < cdots < x_n$. Once again, we must get $0$ from every choice of $t$. So we must have $left( sum_{i=1}^k v_i right)^2 =0$ for all $k$, and this means that all $v_i$ are zero.
edited Nov 23 at 18:34
community wiki
2 revs
David E Speyer
Yes, it is negative semidefinite on the plane given by $sum_i v_i = 0$. Here is a sketch of a proof (feel free to write it up in detail): ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:13
1
... Step 1: Fix $n$ reals $v_1, v_2, ldots, v_n$ satisfying $sum_i v_i = 0$. Our goal is to prove that $sum_{i, j} left|x_i - x_jright| v_i v_j leq 0$ for any $n$ points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^m$ for any $m geq 0$. (There is no reason to restrict oneself to $m = 3$.) By the classical "averaging over the sphere" trick, it suffices to prove this inequality only for $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^1$, because each $left|x_i - x_jright|$ is just a scalar factor times ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:15
... the average of $w^perp x_i - w^perp x_j$ where $w$ ranges over the unit sphere in $mathbb{R}^m$ (uniformly in Haar measure). (I hope I'm getting this trick correct; if not, replace the unit sphere by $operatorname{SO}left(m, mathbb{R}right)$ or something similar. I don't really know what I'm talking about when I'm talking integration.) ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:16
2
... Step 2: So let's prove this inequality for $m = 1$. I think this was an olympiad problem not too long ago (USAMO?), but I can't find it, so here's the idea of the solution: Let $I$ be a finite interval containing all points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}$, and let us use the Iverson bracket notation. Then, $left|x_i-x_jright| = int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt$ for all $i$ and $j$. Thus, ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
1
... we have $sum_{i,j} left|x_i-x_jright| v_i v_j = sum_{i,j} int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt v_i v_j = int_I left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) dt leq 0$, because each $t in I$ satisfies $sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_j = -sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_i$ and thus $left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) = - left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright)^2 leq 0$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
|
show 1 more comment
Yes, it is negative semidefinite on the plane given by $sum_i v_i = 0$. Here is a sketch of a proof (feel free to write it up in detail): ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:13
1
... Step 1: Fix $n$ reals $v_1, v_2, ldots, v_n$ satisfying $sum_i v_i = 0$. Our goal is to prove that $sum_{i, j} left|x_i - x_jright| v_i v_j leq 0$ for any $n$ points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^m$ for any $m geq 0$. (There is no reason to restrict oneself to $m = 3$.) By the classical "averaging over the sphere" trick, it suffices to prove this inequality only for $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^1$, because each $left|x_i - x_jright|$ is just a scalar factor times ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:15
... the average of $w^perp x_i - w^perp x_j$ where $w$ ranges over the unit sphere in $mathbb{R}^m$ (uniformly in Haar measure). (I hope I'm getting this trick correct; if not, replace the unit sphere by $operatorname{SO}left(m, mathbb{R}right)$ or something similar. I don't really know what I'm talking about when I'm talking integration.) ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:16
2
... Step 2: So let's prove this inequality for $m = 1$. I think this was an olympiad problem not too long ago (USAMO?), but I can't find it, so here's the idea of the solution: Let $I$ be a finite interval containing all points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}$, and let us use the Iverson bracket notation. Then, $left|x_i-x_jright| = int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt$ for all $i$ and $j$. Thus, ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
1
... we have $sum_{i,j} left|x_i-x_jright| v_i v_j = sum_{i,j} int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt v_i v_j = int_I left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) dt leq 0$, because each $t in I$ satisfies $sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_j = -sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_i$ and thus $left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) = - left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright)^2 leq 0$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
Yes, it is negative semidefinite on the plane given by $sum_i v_i = 0$. Here is a sketch of a proof (feel free to write it up in detail): ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:13
Yes, it is negative semidefinite on the plane given by $sum_i v_i = 0$. Here is a sketch of a proof (feel free to write it up in detail): ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:13
1
1
... Step 1: Fix $n$ reals $v_1, v_2, ldots, v_n$ satisfying $sum_i v_i = 0$. Our goal is to prove that $sum_{i, j} left|x_i - x_jright| v_i v_j leq 0$ for any $n$ points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^m$ for any $m geq 0$. (There is no reason to restrict oneself to $m = 3$.) By the classical "averaging over the sphere" trick, it suffices to prove this inequality only for $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^1$, because each $left|x_i - x_jright|$ is just a scalar factor times ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:15
... Step 1: Fix $n$ reals $v_1, v_2, ldots, v_n$ satisfying $sum_i v_i = 0$. Our goal is to prove that $sum_{i, j} left|x_i - x_jright| v_i v_j leq 0$ for any $n$ points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^m$ for any $m geq 0$. (There is no reason to restrict oneself to $m = 3$.) By the classical "averaging over the sphere" trick, it suffices to prove this inequality only for $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}^1$, because each $left|x_i - x_jright|$ is just a scalar factor times ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:15
... the average of $w^perp x_i - w^perp x_j$ where $w$ ranges over the unit sphere in $mathbb{R}^m$ (uniformly in Haar measure). (I hope I'm getting this trick correct; if not, replace the unit sphere by $operatorname{SO}left(m, mathbb{R}right)$ or something similar. I don't really know what I'm talking about when I'm talking integration.) ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:16
... the average of $w^perp x_i - w^perp x_j$ where $w$ ranges over the unit sphere in $mathbb{R}^m$ (uniformly in Haar measure). (I hope I'm getting this trick correct; if not, replace the unit sphere by $operatorname{SO}left(m, mathbb{R}right)$ or something similar. I don't really know what I'm talking about when I'm talking integration.) ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:16
2
2
... Step 2: So let's prove this inequality for $m = 1$. I think this was an olympiad problem not too long ago (USAMO?), but I can't find it, so here's the idea of the solution: Let $I$ be a finite interval containing all points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}$, and let us use the Iverson bracket notation. Then, $left|x_i-x_jright| = int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt$ for all $i$ and $j$. Thus, ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
... Step 2: So let's prove this inequality for $m = 1$. I think this was an olympiad problem not too long ago (USAMO?), but I can't find it, so here's the idea of the solution: Let $I$ be a finite interval containing all points $x_1, x_2, ldots, x_n in mathbb{R}$, and let us use the Iverson bracket notation. Then, $left|x_i-x_jright| = int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt$ for all $i$ and $j$. Thus, ...
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
1
1
... we have $sum_{i,j} left|x_i-x_jright| v_i v_j = sum_{i,j} int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt v_i v_j = int_I left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) dt leq 0$, because each $t in I$ satisfies $sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_j = -sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_i$ and thus $left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) = - left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright)^2 leq 0$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
... we have $sum_{i,j} left|x_i-x_jright| v_i v_j = sum_{i,j} int_I left[t leq x_iright] left[t > x_jright] dt v_i v_j = int_I left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) dt leq 0$, because each $t in I$ satisfies $sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_j = -sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_i$ and thus $left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright) left(sum_j left[t > x_jright] v_jright) = - left(sum_i left[t leq x_iright] v_iright)^2 leq 0$.
– darij grinberg
Nov 23 at 5:18
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
-1
down vote
So, if I understand it correctly, you want to proof that $Ax=0 implies x=0$, correct?
So, we simply need to show that $det(A) neq 0$.
Let $A= begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}$ where $a_{ij} := d(i,j) := |x_i-x_j|$
begin{align}
det A &= det
begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}
\ &= a_{11} a_{22} a_{33} +a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} - a_{13} a_{22} a_{31} - a_{12} a_{21} a_{33} - a_{11} a_{23} a_{32}
\ &= 0+a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} -0-0-0
\ &= 2a_{12}a_{13} a_{23} > 0
end{align}
As $a_{ii}=d(i,i) = 0$ and $d(i,j)>0$ for $ineq j$
Do you know that there exist natural numbers greater than 3?
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 13:25
Eh, my bad. In the first sentence he went with points in $mathbb{R}^3$, so I went with that
– Sudix
Nov 24 at 16:04
Ok, no problem.
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 19:12
add a comment |
up vote
-1
down vote
So, if I understand it correctly, you want to proof that $Ax=0 implies x=0$, correct?
So, we simply need to show that $det(A) neq 0$.
Let $A= begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}$ where $a_{ij} := d(i,j) := |x_i-x_j|$
begin{align}
det A &= det
begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}
\ &= a_{11} a_{22} a_{33} +a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} - a_{13} a_{22} a_{31} - a_{12} a_{21} a_{33} - a_{11} a_{23} a_{32}
\ &= 0+a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} -0-0-0
\ &= 2a_{12}a_{13} a_{23} > 0
end{align}
As $a_{ii}=d(i,i) = 0$ and $d(i,j)>0$ for $ineq j$
Do you know that there exist natural numbers greater than 3?
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 13:25
Eh, my bad. In the first sentence he went with points in $mathbb{R}^3$, so I went with that
– Sudix
Nov 24 at 16:04
Ok, no problem.
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 19:12
add a comment |
up vote
-1
down vote
up vote
-1
down vote
So, if I understand it correctly, you want to proof that $Ax=0 implies x=0$, correct?
So, we simply need to show that $det(A) neq 0$.
Let $A= begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}$ where $a_{ij} := d(i,j) := |x_i-x_j|$
begin{align}
det A &= det
begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}
\ &= a_{11} a_{22} a_{33} +a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} - a_{13} a_{22} a_{31} - a_{12} a_{21} a_{33} - a_{11} a_{23} a_{32}
\ &= 0+a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} -0-0-0
\ &= 2a_{12}a_{13} a_{23} > 0
end{align}
As $a_{ii}=d(i,i) = 0$ and $d(i,j)>0$ for $ineq j$
So, if I understand it correctly, you want to proof that $Ax=0 implies x=0$, correct?
So, we simply need to show that $det(A) neq 0$.
Let $A= begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}$ where $a_{ij} := d(i,j) := |x_i-x_j|$
begin{align}
det A &= det
begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & a_{12} & a_{13} \
a_{21} & a_{22} & a_{23} \
a_{31} & a_{32} & a_{33}
end{pmatrix}
\ &= a_{11} a_{22} a_{33} +a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} - a_{13} a_{22} a_{31} - a_{12} a_{21} a_{33} - a_{11} a_{23} a_{32}
\ &= 0+a_{12} a_{23} a_{31} + a_{13} a_{21} a_{32} -0-0-0
\ &= 2a_{12}a_{13} a_{23} > 0
end{align}
As $a_{ii}=d(i,i) = 0$ and $d(i,j)>0$ for $ineq j$
answered Nov 24 at 5:24
Sudix
8761316
8761316
Do you know that there exist natural numbers greater than 3?
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 13:25
Eh, my bad. In the first sentence he went with points in $mathbb{R}^3$, so I went with that
– Sudix
Nov 24 at 16:04
Ok, no problem.
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 19:12
add a comment |
Do you know that there exist natural numbers greater than 3?
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 13:25
Eh, my bad. In the first sentence he went with points in $mathbb{R}^3$, so I went with that
– Sudix
Nov 24 at 16:04
Ok, no problem.
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 19:12
Do you know that there exist natural numbers greater than 3?
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 13:25
Do you know that there exist natural numbers greater than 3?
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 13:25
Eh, my bad. In the first sentence he went with points in $mathbb{R}^3$, so I went with that
– Sudix
Nov 24 at 16:04
Eh, my bad. In the first sentence he went with points in $mathbb{R}^3$, so I went with that
– Sudix
Nov 24 at 16:04
Ok, no problem.
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 19:12
Ok, no problem.
– Capublanca
Nov 24 at 19:12
add a comment |
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1
Where did this problem come from? Do you have any ideas about how you might solve it?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:17
The question comes as a step of a more general problem in which I have to invert a matrix depending on a parameter. I have no idea of how to solve the problem, as it strongly depends on the underlying combinatorial structure.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:22
2
Have you got an example of such a matrix that is singular?
– Theo Bendit
Nov 16 at 15:26
For small $n$ the matrix is actually non-singular. For large $n$ I suspect that a 1-dimensional kernel can occur, but I do not have explicit examples. Of course it would be a nicer and cleaner result if $A$ turns out to be always non-singular.
– Capublanca
Nov 16 at 15:30
4
joriki's answer should be relevant.
– user1551
Nov 16 at 16:50