Two continuous functions on a closed interval guarantees a fixed point?











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Let $f,g: [0,1] to mathbb{R}$ be continuous functions and assume $f(0) > g(0)$ and $f(1) < g(1)$.
Prove there exists a $t in (0,1)$ such that $f(t) = g(t)$.




So far I have tried saying as f and g are continuous then f +g are continuous but how do I incorporate the inequality?



I understand the two functions must cross and therefore their meeting point would be t. I don't know which theorems I should use to prove this.










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  • @ViktorGlombik It's amusing to note that the very second sentence of that page reads "Not to be confused with the Intermediate value theorem"...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Nov 24 at 16:09















up vote
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down vote

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Let $f,g: [0,1] to mathbb{R}$ be continuous functions and assume $f(0) > g(0)$ and $f(1) < g(1)$.
Prove there exists a $t in (0,1)$ such that $f(t) = g(t)$.




So far I have tried saying as f and g are continuous then f +g are continuous but how do I incorporate the inequality?



I understand the two functions must cross and therefore their meeting point would be t. I don't know which theorems I should use to prove this.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • @ViktorGlombik It's amusing to note that the very second sentence of that page reads "Not to be confused with the Intermediate value theorem"...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Nov 24 at 16:09













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $f,g: [0,1] to mathbb{R}$ be continuous functions and assume $f(0) > g(0)$ and $f(1) < g(1)$.
Prove there exists a $t in (0,1)$ such that $f(t) = g(t)$.




So far I have tried saying as f and g are continuous then f +g are continuous but how do I incorporate the inequality?



I understand the two functions must cross and therefore their meeting point would be t. I don't know which theorems I should use to prove this.










share|cite|improve this question
















Let $f,g: [0,1] to mathbb{R}$ be continuous functions and assume $f(0) > g(0)$ and $f(1) < g(1)$.
Prove there exists a $t in (0,1)$ such that $f(t) = g(t)$.




So far I have tried saying as f and g are continuous then f +g are continuous but how do I incorporate the inequality?



I understand the two functions must cross and therefore their meeting point would be t. I don't know which theorems I should use to prove this.







real-analysis analysis functions continuity






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edited Nov 24 at 10:53









Viktor Glombik

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asked Nov 24 at 10:33









Pumpkinpeach

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567












  • @ViktorGlombik It's amusing to note that the very second sentence of that page reads "Not to be confused with the Intermediate value theorem"...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Nov 24 at 16:09


















  • @ViktorGlombik It's amusing to note that the very second sentence of that page reads "Not to be confused with the Intermediate value theorem"...
    – David C. Ullrich
    Nov 24 at 16:09
















@ViktorGlombik It's amusing to note that the very second sentence of that page reads "Not to be confused with the Intermediate value theorem"...
– David C. Ullrich
Nov 24 at 16:09




@ViktorGlombik It's amusing to note that the very second sentence of that page reads "Not to be confused with the Intermediate value theorem"...
– David C. Ullrich
Nov 24 at 16:09










2 Answers
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In exercises where you have continuity, equality, and want to prove that there exists an element that satisfies a certain equation, think about the intermediate value theorem.



Hint: Proving that $f(t)=g(t)$ for some $t$ means that $f(t)-g(t)=0$ for some $t$, so consider the function $h=f-g$, which is continuous.






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    Hint:Let $h(x)=f(x)-g(x)$ be a continuous function. Since $h(0) gt 0$ and $h(1) lt 0$, $h(x)$ must be 0 somewhere in the interval.






    share|cite|improve this answer























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      2 Answers
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      2 Answers
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      up vote
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      In exercises where you have continuity, equality, and want to prove that there exists an element that satisfies a certain equation, think about the intermediate value theorem.



      Hint: Proving that $f(t)=g(t)$ for some $t$ means that $f(t)-g(t)=0$ for some $t$, so consider the function $h=f-g$, which is continuous.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        In exercises where you have continuity, equality, and want to prove that there exists an element that satisfies a certain equation, think about the intermediate value theorem.



        Hint: Proving that $f(t)=g(t)$ for some $t$ means that $f(t)-g(t)=0$ for some $t$, so consider the function $h=f-g$, which is continuous.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          In exercises where you have continuity, equality, and want to prove that there exists an element that satisfies a certain equation, think about the intermediate value theorem.



          Hint: Proving that $f(t)=g(t)$ for some $t$ means that $f(t)-g(t)=0$ for some $t$, so consider the function $h=f-g$, which is continuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          In exercises where you have continuity, equality, and want to prove that there exists an element that satisfies a certain equation, think about the intermediate value theorem.



          Hint: Proving that $f(t)=g(t)$ for some $t$ means that $f(t)-g(t)=0$ for some $t$, so consider the function $h=f-g$, which is continuous.







          share|cite|improve this answer












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          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 24 at 10:41









          Scientifica

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              up vote
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              Hint:Let $h(x)=f(x)-g(x)$ be a continuous function. Since $h(0) gt 0$ and $h(1) lt 0$, $h(x)$ must be 0 somewhere in the interval.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Hint:Let $h(x)=f(x)-g(x)$ be a continuous function. Since $h(0) gt 0$ and $h(1) lt 0$, $h(x)$ must be 0 somewhere in the interval.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  2
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                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  Hint:Let $h(x)=f(x)-g(x)$ be a continuous function. Since $h(0) gt 0$ and $h(1) lt 0$, $h(x)$ must be 0 somewhere in the interval.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Hint:Let $h(x)=f(x)-g(x)$ be a continuous function. Since $h(0) gt 0$ and $h(1) lt 0$, $h(x)$ must be 0 somewhere in the interval.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 25 at 13:17

























                  answered Nov 24 at 10:41









                  Thomas Shelby

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                  1,018116






























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