Discrete Random Variable: Independent or Dependent?












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Question: You are given a fair red die and a fair blue die. You roll each die once, independently of each other. Let $(i, j)$ be the outcome, where $i$ is the result of the red die and $j$ is the result of the blue die. Define:



$X = i+j$ and $Y = i-j$



Are these independent or not?




Attempt:



Just by looking at it, it seems that they are dependent on one another but I’m not sure how to prove it.



If I take, $i=6$ and $j=4$ then $X=10$, and $Y =2$.



I think I need to use this formula: $Pr$ ($X=x$ $land$ $Y=y$) $=$ $Pr(X=x) $ . $ Pr(Y=y)$



Wouldn’t the probability be $frac{1}{6}$ for each one? Not sure how to use the formula to prove dependence.










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    Question: You are given a fair red die and a fair blue die. You roll each die once, independently of each other. Let $(i, j)$ be the outcome, where $i$ is the result of the red die and $j$ is the result of the blue die. Define:



    $X = i+j$ and $Y = i-j$



    Are these independent or not?




    Attempt:



    Just by looking at it, it seems that they are dependent on one another but I’m not sure how to prove it.



    If I take, $i=6$ and $j=4$ then $X=10$, and $Y =2$.



    I think I need to use this formula: $Pr$ ($X=x$ $land$ $Y=y$) $=$ $Pr(X=x) $ . $ Pr(Y=y)$



    Wouldn’t the probability be $frac{1}{6}$ for each one? Not sure how to use the formula to prove dependence.










    share|cite|improve this question

























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      0








      Question: You are given a fair red die and a fair blue die. You roll each die once, independently of each other. Let $(i, j)$ be the outcome, where $i$ is the result of the red die and $j$ is the result of the blue die. Define:



      $X = i+j$ and $Y = i-j$



      Are these independent or not?




      Attempt:



      Just by looking at it, it seems that they are dependent on one another but I’m not sure how to prove it.



      If I take, $i=6$ and $j=4$ then $X=10$, and $Y =2$.



      I think I need to use this formula: $Pr$ ($X=x$ $land$ $Y=y$) $=$ $Pr(X=x) $ . $ Pr(Y=y)$



      Wouldn’t the probability be $frac{1}{6}$ for each one? Not sure how to use the formula to prove dependence.










      share|cite|improve this question














      Question: You are given a fair red die and a fair blue die. You roll each die once, independently of each other. Let $(i, j)$ be the outcome, where $i$ is the result of the red die and $j$ is the result of the blue die. Define:



      $X = i+j$ and $Y = i-j$



      Are these independent or not?




      Attempt:



      Just by looking at it, it seems that they are dependent on one another but I’m not sure how to prove it.



      If I take, $i=6$ and $j=4$ then $X=10$, and $Y =2$.



      I think I need to use this formula: $Pr$ ($X=x$ $land$ $Y=y$) $=$ $Pr(X=x) $ . $ Pr(Y=y)$



      Wouldn’t the probability be $frac{1}{6}$ for each one? Not sure how to use the formula to prove dependence.







      probability-theory discrete-mathematics probability-distributions random-variables






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      asked Nov 30 at 6:09









      Toby

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          If you want to show that two random variables are not independent, you would show that there are $x,y$ such that $Pr(X = x land Y = y) neq Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$. Here, there's a lot of choices you can take. For example, an easy one would be $x = 12, y = -5$. Note that both $X = 12$ and $Y = -5$ can happen with probability $frac{1}{36}$: the first requires rolling two sixes, and the second requires rolling a 1 then a 6. But it is impossible for both two happen together. Hence,
          $$Pr(X = x land Y = y) = 0 neq frac{1}{36} times frac{1}{36} = Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$$
          So the two are not independent. Of course, there are many choices of $x$ and $y$ where this relationship fails to holds; any such pair suffices.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I am a little confused about how they are impossible to roll together. Like, if the question stated that X=|i-j| and Y=max(i,j) with same conditions. If I take (i,j) to be (6,2), then I would have X=4, Y=2. To get X=4, I would need to roll to get two 2's and for Y I would need to roll two 1's. In this case, is it also impossible to get both of these to happen together? And this would also be dependent?
            – Toby
            Dec 1 at 0:49











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3














          If you want to show that two random variables are not independent, you would show that there are $x,y$ such that $Pr(X = x land Y = y) neq Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$. Here, there's a lot of choices you can take. For example, an easy one would be $x = 12, y = -5$. Note that both $X = 12$ and $Y = -5$ can happen with probability $frac{1}{36}$: the first requires rolling two sixes, and the second requires rolling a 1 then a 6. But it is impossible for both two happen together. Hence,
          $$Pr(X = x land Y = y) = 0 neq frac{1}{36} times frac{1}{36} = Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$$
          So the two are not independent. Of course, there are many choices of $x$ and $y$ where this relationship fails to holds; any such pair suffices.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I am a little confused about how they are impossible to roll together. Like, if the question stated that X=|i-j| and Y=max(i,j) with same conditions. If I take (i,j) to be (6,2), then I would have X=4, Y=2. To get X=4, I would need to roll to get two 2's and for Y I would need to roll two 1's. In this case, is it also impossible to get both of these to happen together? And this would also be dependent?
            – Toby
            Dec 1 at 0:49
















          3














          If you want to show that two random variables are not independent, you would show that there are $x,y$ such that $Pr(X = x land Y = y) neq Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$. Here, there's a lot of choices you can take. For example, an easy one would be $x = 12, y = -5$. Note that both $X = 12$ and $Y = -5$ can happen with probability $frac{1}{36}$: the first requires rolling two sixes, and the second requires rolling a 1 then a 6. But it is impossible for both two happen together. Hence,
          $$Pr(X = x land Y = y) = 0 neq frac{1}{36} times frac{1}{36} = Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$$
          So the two are not independent. Of course, there are many choices of $x$ and $y$ where this relationship fails to holds; any such pair suffices.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I am a little confused about how they are impossible to roll together. Like, if the question stated that X=|i-j| and Y=max(i,j) with same conditions. If I take (i,j) to be (6,2), then I would have X=4, Y=2. To get X=4, I would need to roll to get two 2's and for Y I would need to roll two 1's. In this case, is it also impossible to get both of these to happen together? And this would also be dependent?
            – Toby
            Dec 1 at 0:49














          3












          3








          3






          If you want to show that two random variables are not independent, you would show that there are $x,y$ such that $Pr(X = x land Y = y) neq Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$. Here, there's a lot of choices you can take. For example, an easy one would be $x = 12, y = -5$. Note that both $X = 12$ and $Y = -5$ can happen with probability $frac{1}{36}$: the first requires rolling two sixes, and the second requires rolling a 1 then a 6. But it is impossible for both two happen together. Hence,
          $$Pr(X = x land Y = y) = 0 neq frac{1}{36} times frac{1}{36} = Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$$
          So the two are not independent. Of course, there are many choices of $x$ and $y$ where this relationship fails to holds; any such pair suffices.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          If you want to show that two random variables are not independent, you would show that there are $x,y$ such that $Pr(X = x land Y = y) neq Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$. Here, there's a lot of choices you can take. For example, an easy one would be $x = 12, y = -5$. Note that both $X = 12$ and $Y = -5$ can happen with probability $frac{1}{36}$: the first requires rolling two sixes, and the second requires rolling a 1 then a 6. But it is impossible for both two happen together. Hence,
          $$Pr(X = x land Y = y) = 0 neq frac{1}{36} times frac{1}{36} = Pr(X = x) cdot Pr(Y = y)$$
          So the two are not independent. Of course, there are many choices of $x$ and $y$ where this relationship fails to holds; any such pair suffices.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 30 at 6:22









          platty

          3,360320




          3,360320












          • I am a little confused about how they are impossible to roll together. Like, if the question stated that X=|i-j| and Y=max(i,j) with same conditions. If I take (i,j) to be (6,2), then I would have X=4, Y=2. To get X=4, I would need to roll to get two 2's and for Y I would need to roll two 1's. In this case, is it also impossible to get both of these to happen together? And this would also be dependent?
            – Toby
            Dec 1 at 0:49


















          • I am a little confused about how they are impossible to roll together. Like, if the question stated that X=|i-j| and Y=max(i,j) with same conditions. If I take (i,j) to be (6,2), then I would have X=4, Y=2. To get X=4, I would need to roll to get two 2's and for Y I would need to roll two 1's. In this case, is it also impossible to get both of these to happen together? And this would also be dependent?
            – Toby
            Dec 1 at 0:49
















          I am a little confused about how they are impossible to roll together. Like, if the question stated that X=|i-j| and Y=max(i,j) with same conditions. If I take (i,j) to be (6,2), then I would have X=4, Y=2. To get X=4, I would need to roll to get two 2's and for Y I would need to roll two 1's. In this case, is it also impossible to get both of these to happen together? And this would also be dependent?
          – Toby
          Dec 1 at 0:49




          I am a little confused about how they are impossible to roll together. Like, if the question stated that X=|i-j| and Y=max(i,j) with same conditions. If I take (i,j) to be (6,2), then I would have X=4, Y=2. To get X=4, I would need to roll to get two 2's and for Y I would need to roll two 1's. In this case, is it also impossible to get both of these to happen together? And this would also be dependent?
          – Toby
          Dec 1 at 0:49


















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