Let $f_n (x) = n^2 x (1-x^2)^n$ on $[0,1]$. Explain why convergence is not uniform on $[0,1]$
I'm not sure what to do here. I tried $x = frac{1}{sqrt n}$ and then $f_n = n^frac{3}2 (1-frac{1}n)^n$ which looks eerily close to $n^frac{3}2 e$, which obviously goes to infinity and therefore would not converge uniformly. Also its a 2 parter- are there intervals such that $f_n$ does uniformly converge? I was thinking it converges for any interval $[0,a]$ where $0 < a < 1$. Since $$|f_n - 0| = |f_n| = |n^2 x (1-x^2)^n| le |n^2 a(1-a^2)^n|$$
and for any $epsilon > 0$ we can find an $N in N$ s.t. $|n^2 x (1-x^2)^n| < epsilon$ And this would satisfy the definition of uniform convergence right?
analysis proof-verification
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I'm not sure what to do here. I tried $x = frac{1}{sqrt n}$ and then $f_n = n^frac{3}2 (1-frac{1}n)^n$ which looks eerily close to $n^frac{3}2 e$, which obviously goes to infinity and therefore would not converge uniformly. Also its a 2 parter- are there intervals such that $f_n$ does uniformly converge? I was thinking it converges for any interval $[0,a]$ where $0 < a < 1$. Since $$|f_n - 0| = |f_n| = |n^2 x (1-x^2)^n| le |n^2 a(1-a^2)^n|$$
and for any $epsilon > 0$ we can find an $N in N$ s.t. $|n^2 x (1-x^2)^n| < epsilon$ And this would satisfy the definition of uniform convergence right?
analysis proof-verification
add a comment |
I'm not sure what to do here. I tried $x = frac{1}{sqrt n}$ and then $f_n = n^frac{3}2 (1-frac{1}n)^n$ which looks eerily close to $n^frac{3}2 e$, which obviously goes to infinity and therefore would not converge uniformly. Also its a 2 parter- are there intervals such that $f_n$ does uniformly converge? I was thinking it converges for any interval $[0,a]$ where $0 < a < 1$. Since $$|f_n - 0| = |f_n| = |n^2 x (1-x^2)^n| le |n^2 a(1-a^2)^n|$$
and for any $epsilon > 0$ we can find an $N in N$ s.t. $|n^2 x (1-x^2)^n| < epsilon$ And this would satisfy the definition of uniform convergence right?
analysis proof-verification
I'm not sure what to do here. I tried $x = frac{1}{sqrt n}$ and then $f_n = n^frac{3}2 (1-frac{1}n)^n$ which looks eerily close to $n^frac{3}2 e$, which obviously goes to infinity and therefore would not converge uniformly. Also its a 2 parter- are there intervals such that $f_n$ does uniformly converge? I was thinking it converges for any interval $[0,a]$ where $0 < a < 1$. Since $$|f_n - 0| = |f_n| = |n^2 x (1-x^2)^n| le |n^2 a(1-a^2)^n|$$
and for any $epsilon > 0$ we can find an $N in N$ s.t. $|n^2 x (1-x^2)^n| < epsilon$ And this would satisfy the definition of uniform convergence right?
analysis proof-verification
analysis proof-verification
asked Nov 28 at 7:53
zodross
1496
1496
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For each fixed $x$, $f_n(x) to 0$. You have already proved that the convergence is not uniform: $f_n(frac 1 {sqrt n}) to infty$. [ Use the fact that $(1-frac 1 n)^{n} >frac 1 {2e}$ for $n$ sufficiently large]. This also proves that convergence is not uniform on $[0,a]$ for any $a>0$. However, $f_n to 0$ uniformly on $[a,1]$ for any $a >0$ [because $n^{2}(1-a^{2})^{n} to 0$].
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For each fixed $x$, $f_n(x) to 0$. You have already proved that the convergence is not uniform: $f_n(frac 1 {sqrt n}) to infty$. [ Use the fact that $(1-frac 1 n)^{n} >frac 1 {2e}$ for $n$ sufficiently large]. This also proves that convergence is not uniform on $[0,a]$ for any $a>0$. However, $f_n to 0$ uniformly on $[a,1]$ for any $a >0$ [because $n^{2}(1-a^{2})^{n} to 0$].
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For each fixed $x$, $f_n(x) to 0$. You have already proved that the convergence is not uniform: $f_n(frac 1 {sqrt n}) to infty$. [ Use the fact that $(1-frac 1 n)^{n} >frac 1 {2e}$ for $n$ sufficiently large]. This also proves that convergence is not uniform on $[0,a]$ for any $a>0$. However, $f_n to 0$ uniformly on $[a,1]$ for any $a >0$ [because $n^{2}(1-a^{2})^{n} to 0$].
add a comment |
For each fixed $x$, $f_n(x) to 0$. You have already proved that the convergence is not uniform: $f_n(frac 1 {sqrt n}) to infty$. [ Use the fact that $(1-frac 1 n)^{n} >frac 1 {2e}$ for $n$ sufficiently large]. This also proves that convergence is not uniform on $[0,a]$ for any $a>0$. However, $f_n to 0$ uniformly on $[a,1]$ for any $a >0$ [because $n^{2}(1-a^{2})^{n} to 0$].
For each fixed $x$, $f_n(x) to 0$. You have already proved that the convergence is not uniform: $f_n(frac 1 {sqrt n}) to infty$. [ Use the fact that $(1-frac 1 n)^{n} >frac 1 {2e}$ for $n$ sufficiently large]. This also proves that convergence is not uniform on $[0,a]$ for any $a>0$. However, $f_n to 0$ uniformly on $[a,1]$ for any $a >0$ [because $n^{2}(1-a^{2})^{n} to 0$].
answered Nov 28 at 8:00
Kavi Rama Murthy
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