If $f(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}a_{i}x^i$ then also $g(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}b_{i}x^i$ [closed]












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$begingroup$


Let $$f(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}a_{i}x^i,~~~~~~~~g(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}b_{i}x^i$$where $b_{i}in (a_{i}- varepsilon,a_{i}+ varepsilon),a_{i}in mathbb{R},(i=1,2,cdots,n),varepsilonto 0^{+}$




If there exists $zin mathbb{C}backslash mathbb{R}$, such that $f(z)=0$,
$f$ is not all real roots,show $g$ is not all real roots
I conjecture:
there also exists $z'in mathbb{C}backslash mathbb{R}$ such that
$g(z')=0$.




on the other words: if $f$ is not all real roots,show $g$ is not all real roots?



Can you help me to prove it? Thanks.










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closed as off-topic by Kavi Rama Murthy, user10354138, Rebellos, Vidyanshu Mishra, Brahadeesh Dec 5 '18 at 8:01


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Kavi Rama Murthy, Rebellos, Vidyanshu Mishra

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • $begingroup$
    As I understand it, you want to prove that for any polynomial $f$ with a non-real root, then all polynomials $g$ with the same degree and coefficients which are "sufficiently close" to that of $f$ will also have such a non-real root. Sufficiently closed means their "distance" is smaller than some threshold, possibly depending on $f$, where the distance is $sup_i |a_i-b_i|$. Is my understanding correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Earnest
    Dec 5 '18 at 6:12
















-2












$begingroup$


Let $$f(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}a_{i}x^i,~~~~~~~~g(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}b_{i}x^i$$where $b_{i}in (a_{i}- varepsilon,a_{i}+ varepsilon),a_{i}in mathbb{R},(i=1,2,cdots,n),varepsilonto 0^{+}$




If there exists $zin mathbb{C}backslash mathbb{R}$, such that $f(z)=0$,
$f$ is not all real roots,show $g$ is not all real roots
I conjecture:
there also exists $z'in mathbb{C}backslash mathbb{R}$ such that
$g(z')=0$.




on the other words: if $f$ is not all real roots,show $g$ is not all real roots?



Can you help me to prove it? Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Kavi Rama Murthy, user10354138, Rebellos, Vidyanshu Mishra, Brahadeesh Dec 5 '18 at 8:01


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Kavi Rama Murthy, Rebellos, Vidyanshu Mishra

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • $begingroup$
    As I understand it, you want to prove that for any polynomial $f$ with a non-real root, then all polynomials $g$ with the same degree and coefficients which are "sufficiently close" to that of $f$ will also have such a non-real root. Sufficiently closed means their "distance" is smaller than some threshold, possibly depending on $f$, where the distance is $sup_i |a_i-b_i|$. Is my understanding correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Earnest
    Dec 5 '18 at 6:12














-2












-2








-2





$begingroup$


Let $$f(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}a_{i}x^i,~~~~~~~~g(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}b_{i}x^i$$where $b_{i}in (a_{i}- varepsilon,a_{i}+ varepsilon),a_{i}in mathbb{R},(i=1,2,cdots,n),varepsilonto 0^{+}$




If there exists $zin mathbb{C}backslash mathbb{R}$, such that $f(z)=0$,
$f$ is not all real roots,show $g$ is not all real roots
I conjecture:
there also exists $z'in mathbb{C}backslash mathbb{R}$ such that
$g(z')=0$.




on the other words: if $f$ is not all real roots,show $g$ is not all real roots?



Can you help me to prove it? Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $$f(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}a_{i}x^i,~~~~~~~~g(x)=sum_{i=0}^{n}binom{n}{i}b_{i}x^i$$where $b_{i}in (a_{i}- varepsilon,a_{i}+ varepsilon),a_{i}in mathbb{R},(i=1,2,cdots,n),varepsilonto 0^{+}$




If there exists $zin mathbb{C}backslash mathbb{R}$, such that $f(z)=0$,
$f$ is not all real roots,show $g$ is not all real roots
I conjecture:
there also exists $z'in mathbb{C}backslash mathbb{R}$ such that
$g(z')=0$.




on the other words: if $f$ is not all real roots,show $g$ is not all real roots?



Can you help me to prove it? Thanks.







real-analysis






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edited Dec 5 '18 at 6:32







function sug

















asked Dec 5 '18 at 5:59









function sugfunction sug

3631438




3631438




closed as off-topic by Kavi Rama Murthy, user10354138, Rebellos, Vidyanshu Mishra, Brahadeesh Dec 5 '18 at 8:01


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Kavi Rama Murthy, Rebellos, Vidyanshu Mishra

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Kavi Rama Murthy, user10354138, Rebellos, Vidyanshu Mishra, Brahadeesh Dec 5 '18 at 8:01


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant definitions, source, possible strategies, your current progress, why the question is interesting or important, etc." – Kavi Rama Murthy, Rebellos, Vidyanshu Mishra

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • $begingroup$
    As I understand it, you want to prove that for any polynomial $f$ with a non-real root, then all polynomials $g$ with the same degree and coefficients which are "sufficiently close" to that of $f$ will also have such a non-real root. Sufficiently closed means their "distance" is smaller than some threshold, possibly depending on $f$, where the distance is $sup_i |a_i-b_i|$. Is my understanding correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Earnest
    Dec 5 '18 at 6:12


















  • $begingroup$
    As I understand it, you want to prove that for any polynomial $f$ with a non-real root, then all polynomials $g$ with the same degree and coefficients which are "sufficiently close" to that of $f$ will also have such a non-real root. Sufficiently closed means their "distance" is smaller than some threshold, possibly depending on $f$, where the distance is $sup_i |a_i-b_i|$. Is my understanding correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Earnest
    Dec 5 '18 at 6:12
















$begingroup$
As I understand it, you want to prove that for any polynomial $f$ with a non-real root, then all polynomials $g$ with the same degree and coefficients which are "sufficiently close" to that of $f$ will also have such a non-real root. Sufficiently closed means their "distance" is smaller than some threshold, possibly depending on $f$, where the distance is $sup_i |a_i-b_i|$. Is my understanding correct?
$endgroup$
– Mike Earnest
Dec 5 '18 at 6:12




$begingroup$
As I understand it, you want to prove that for any polynomial $f$ with a non-real root, then all polynomials $g$ with the same degree and coefficients which are "sufficiently close" to that of $f$ will also have such a non-real root. Sufficiently closed means their "distance" is smaller than some threshold, possibly depending on $f$, where the distance is $sup_i |a_i-b_i|$. Is my understanding correct?
$endgroup$
– Mike Earnest
Dec 5 '18 at 6:12










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Let's try the simplest case $n=2$ (as every unary function with real coefficients has just one root which is real).
Let $g(x)=x^2+2x+1$, that is, $b_0=b_1=b_2=1$. Then $-1$ is a double root, so no complex roots.
Let $f(x)=x^2+2x+1+varepsilon$, that is, $a_0=a_1=1$ and $a_2=1+varepsilon$, for $varepsilon>0$.
These have two complex roots.






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$endgroup$




















    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Let's try the simplest case $n=2$ (as every unary function with real coefficients has just one root which is real).
    Let $g(x)=x^2+2x+1$, that is, $b_0=b_1=b_2=1$. Then $-1$ is a double root, so no complex roots.
    Let $f(x)=x^2+2x+1+varepsilon$, that is, $a_0=a_1=1$ and $a_2=1+varepsilon$, for $varepsilon>0$.
    These have two complex roots.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Let's try the simplest case $n=2$ (as every unary function with real coefficients has just one root which is real).
      Let $g(x)=x^2+2x+1$, that is, $b_0=b_1=b_2=1$. Then $-1$ is a double root, so no complex roots.
      Let $f(x)=x^2+2x+1+varepsilon$, that is, $a_0=a_1=1$ and $a_2=1+varepsilon$, for $varepsilon>0$.
      These have two complex roots.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Let's try the simplest case $n=2$ (as every unary function with real coefficients has just one root which is real).
        Let $g(x)=x^2+2x+1$, that is, $b_0=b_1=b_2=1$. Then $-1$ is a double root, so no complex roots.
        Let $f(x)=x^2+2x+1+varepsilon$, that is, $a_0=a_1=1$ and $a_2=1+varepsilon$, for $varepsilon>0$.
        These have two complex roots.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        Let's try the simplest case $n=2$ (as every unary function with real coefficients has just one root which is real).
        Let $g(x)=x^2+2x+1$, that is, $b_0=b_1=b_2=1$. Then $-1$ is a double root, so no complex roots.
        Let $f(x)=x^2+2x+1+varepsilon$, that is, $a_0=a_1=1$ and $a_2=1+varepsilon$, for $varepsilon>0$.
        These have two complex roots.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 5 '18 at 6:14

























        answered Dec 5 '18 at 6:07









        A. PongráczA. Pongrácz

        5,9531929




        5,9531929















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