Probability of flipping 1 coin vs 3 to land a head given previous successes
$begingroup$
(Assuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails)
Using coin 1 I flip it say $n$ times and I have 60 heads, so probability of head:
$frac{60}{n}, n>0$
Using three coins I flip the first $m$ times and get $6$ heads, the second I flip $p$ times and get also $6$ heads, the third coin flipped $q$ times gets $7$ heads:
Coin 2: $frac{6}{m}$
Coin 3: $frac{6}{p}$
Coin 4: $frac{7}{q}$
and since they are independent probability of a head with the 3 coins is
$frac{6}{m}+frac{6}{p}+frac{7}{q}=frac{6pq+6mq+7mp}{mpq}, q,m, p>0 $
and assume : $n>q>m geq p>0$
Now I want to ask if I am to flip the coins again once, which "group" would give me the highest probability of getting a head.
Flipping only Coin 1 once or flipping all of Coins 2,3 and 4 once. Is it possible to reason without knowing $n,m,p,q$ If not what minimal information might we need to further assume.
probability
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
(Assuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails)
Using coin 1 I flip it say $n$ times and I have 60 heads, so probability of head:
$frac{60}{n}, n>0$
Using three coins I flip the first $m$ times and get $6$ heads, the second I flip $p$ times and get also $6$ heads, the third coin flipped $q$ times gets $7$ heads:
Coin 2: $frac{6}{m}$
Coin 3: $frac{6}{p}$
Coin 4: $frac{7}{q}$
and since they are independent probability of a head with the 3 coins is
$frac{6}{m}+frac{6}{p}+frac{7}{q}=frac{6pq+6mq+7mp}{mpq}, q,m, p>0 $
and assume : $n>q>m geq p>0$
Now I want to ask if I am to flip the coins again once, which "group" would give me the highest probability of getting a head.
Flipping only Coin 1 once or flipping all of Coins 2,3 and 4 once. Is it possible to reason without knowing $n,m,p,q$ If not what minimal information might we need to further assume.
probability
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
If $m=12$, $p=12$, and $q=14$, then coins 2 and 3 and 4 each show heads $1/2$ of the time. Why would you want to add these together to get $1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 3/2$?
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 7 '18 at 2:45
$begingroup$
@angryavian I want a head from either of the 3.
$endgroup$
– glockm15
Dec 7 '18 at 3:18
$begingroup$
Sorry, but this text doesn't make much sense. If in the very beginning you already said that we'reAssuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails, then how can these probabilities be anything else ($60/n$ or whatever)? After performing an experiment, such as actually flipping coins, the observed outcomes give you the frequencies, not the probabilities -- and a posteriori frequencies don't have to agree with a priori probabilities.
$endgroup$
– zipirovich
Dec 7 '18 at 3:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
(Assuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails)
Using coin 1 I flip it say $n$ times and I have 60 heads, so probability of head:
$frac{60}{n}, n>0$
Using three coins I flip the first $m$ times and get $6$ heads, the second I flip $p$ times and get also $6$ heads, the third coin flipped $q$ times gets $7$ heads:
Coin 2: $frac{6}{m}$
Coin 3: $frac{6}{p}$
Coin 4: $frac{7}{q}$
and since they are independent probability of a head with the 3 coins is
$frac{6}{m}+frac{6}{p}+frac{7}{q}=frac{6pq+6mq+7mp}{mpq}, q,m, p>0 $
and assume : $n>q>m geq p>0$
Now I want to ask if I am to flip the coins again once, which "group" would give me the highest probability of getting a head.
Flipping only Coin 1 once or flipping all of Coins 2,3 and 4 once. Is it possible to reason without knowing $n,m,p,q$ If not what minimal information might we need to further assume.
probability
$endgroup$
(Assuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails)
Using coin 1 I flip it say $n$ times and I have 60 heads, so probability of head:
$frac{60}{n}, n>0$
Using three coins I flip the first $m$ times and get $6$ heads, the second I flip $p$ times and get also $6$ heads, the third coin flipped $q$ times gets $7$ heads:
Coin 2: $frac{6}{m}$
Coin 3: $frac{6}{p}$
Coin 4: $frac{7}{q}$
and since they are independent probability of a head with the 3 coins is
$frac{6}{m}+frac{6}{p}+frac{7}{q}=frac{6pq+6mq+7mp}{mpq}, q,m, p>0 $
and assume : $n>q>m geq p>0$
Now I want to ask if I am to flip the coins again once, which "group" would give me the highest probability of getting a head.
Flipping only Coin 1 once or flipping all of Coins 2,3 and 4 once. Is it possible to reason without knowing $n,m,p,q$ If not what minimal information might we need to further assume.
probability
probability
asked Dec 7 '18 at 2:27
glockm15glockm15
32019
32019
1
$begingroup$
If $m=12$, $p=12$, and $q=14$, then coins 2 and 3 and 4 each show heads $1/2$ of the time. Why would you want to add these together to get $1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 3/2$?
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 7 '18 at 2:45
$begingroup$
@angryavian I want a head from either of the 3.
$endgroup$
– glockm15
Dec 7 '18 at 3:18
$begingroup$
Sorry, but this text doesn't make much sense. If in the very beginning you already said that we'reAssuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails, then how can these probabilities be anything else ($60/n$ or whatever)? After performing an experiment, such as actually flipping coins, the observed outcomes give you the frequencies, not the probabilities -- and a posteriori frequencies don't have to agree with a priori probabilities.
$endgroup$
– zipirovich
Dec 7 '18 at 3:28
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
If $m=12$, $p=12$, and $q=14$, then coins 2 and 3 and 4 each show heads $1/2$ of the time. Why would you want to add these together to get $1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 3/2$?
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 7 '18 at 2:45
$begingroup$
@angryavian I want a head from either of the 3.
$endgroup$
– glockm15
Dec 7 '18 at 3:18
$begingroup$
Sorry, but this text doesn't make much sense. If in the very beginning you already said that we'reAssuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails, then how can these probabilities be anything else ($60/n$ or whatever)? After performing an experiment, such as actually flipping coins, the observed outcomes give you the frequencies, not the probabilities -- and a posteriori frequencies don't have to agree with a priori probabilities.
$endgroup$
– zipirovich
Dec 7 '18 at 3:28
1
1
$begingroup$
If $m=12$, $p=12$, and $q=14$, then coins 2 and 3 and 4 each show heads $1/2$ of the time. Why would you want to add these together to get $1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 3/2$?
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 7 '18 at 2:45
$begingroup$
If $m=12$, $p=12$, and $q=14$, then coins 2 and 3 and 4 each show heads $1/2$ of the time. Why would you want to add these together to get $1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 3/2$?
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 7 '18 at 2:45
$begingroup$
@angryavian I want a head from either of the 3.
$endgroup$
– glockm15
Dec 7 '18 at 3:18
$begingroup$
@angryavian I want a head from either of the 3.
$endgroup$
– glockm15
Dec 7 '18 at 3:18
$begingroup$
Sorry, but this text doesn't make much sense. If in the very beginning you already said that we're
Assuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails, then how can these probabilities be anything else ($60/n$ or whatever)? After performing an experiment, such as actually flipping coins, the observed outcomes give you the frequencies, not the probabilities -- and a posteriori frequencies don't have to agree with a priori probabilities.$endgroup$
– zipirovich
Dec 7 '18 at 3:28
$begingroup$
Sorry, but this text doesn't make much sense. If in the very beginning you already said that we're
Assuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails, then how can these probabilities be anything else ($60/n$ or whatever)? After performing an experiment, such as actually flipping coins, the observed outcomes give you the frequencies, not the probabilities -- and a posteriori frequencies don't have to agree with a priori probabilities.$endgroup$
– zipirovich
Dec 7 '18 at 3:28
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
If $m=12$, $p=12$, and $q=14$, then coins 2 and 3 and 4 each show heads $1/2$ of the time. Why would you want to add these together to get $1/2 + 1/2 + 1/2 = 3/2$?
$endgroup$
– angryavian
Dec 7 '18 at 2:45
$begingroup$
@angryavian I want a head from either of the 3.
$endgroup$
– glockm15
Dec 7 '18 at 3:18
$begingroup$
Sorry, but this text doesn't make much sense. If in the very beginning you already said that we're
Assuming 1/2 probability for heads or tails, then how can these probabilities be anything else ($60/n$ or whatever)? After performing an experiment, such as actually flipping coins, the observed outcomes give you the frequencies, not the probabilities -- and a posteriori frequencies don't have to agree with a priori probabilities.$endgroup$
– zipirovich
Dec 7 '18 at 3:28