Uniqueness of solutions of an IVP












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I have a misunderstanding regarding a very common reasoning:



Let's i.e. look at the IVP $dot x=f(x), x(t_0)=x_0$ with $f(x)=(x-1)(x-2)$. Now, for $x_0in ]1,2[$ there can be made an argument that the solution always stays in between $]1,2[$.



The usual way to reason this is since otherwise there would be a point, let's say $t_1$, such that $lambda(t_1)=1$ or $lambda(t_1)=2$ and that conflicts with the uniqueness of the solution since it would have an intersecting point with one of the constant solutions.



But I don't understand this: The constant solutions don't even solve the IVP if $x_0in ]1,2[$, so why is it a problem that those solutions intersect?



Is the point here that a solution $lambda$ for the IVP $x(t_0)=x_0$ would then also solve the IVP with $x(t_1)=1$ which is soled by the constant solution and therefor they must coincide?










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  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you get an IVP at $t_1$ that has by assumption two different solutions, contradicting uniqueness.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:18










  • $begingroup$
    Since we can solve IVP backwards, $x(t_1)=1$ determines past values of $x$ as $x(t)=1, t<t_1.$
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – RedLantern
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:43
















0












$begingroup$


I have a misunderstanding regarding a very common reasoning:



Let's i.e. look at the IVP $dot x=f(x), x(t_0)=x_0$ with $f(x)=(x-1)(x-2)$. Now, for $x_0in ]1,2[$ there can be made an argument that the solution always stays in between $]1,2[$.



The usual way to reason this is since otherwise there would be a point, let's say $t_1$, such that $lambda(t_1)=1$ or $lambda(t_1)=2$ and that conflicts with the uniqueness of the solution since it would have an intersecting point with one of the constant solutions.



But I don't understand this: The constant solutions don't even solve the IVP if $x_0in ]1,2[$, so why is it a problem that those solutions intersect?



Is the point here that a solution $lambda$ for the IVP $x(t_0)=x_0$ would then also solve the IVP with $x(t_1)=1$ which is soled by the constant solution and therefor they must coincide?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you get an IVP at $t_1$ that has by assumption two different solutions, contradicting uniqueness.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:18










  • $begingroup$
    Since we can solve IVP backwards, $x(t_1)=1$ determines past values of $x$ as $x(t)=1, t<t_1.$
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – RedLantern
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:43














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have a misunderstanding regarding a very common reasoning:



Let's i.e. look at the IVP $dot x=f(x), x(t_0)=x_0$ with $f(x)=(x-1)(x-2)$. Now, for $x_0in ]1,2[$ there can be made an argument that the solution always stays in between $]1,2[$.



The usual way to reason this is since otherwise there would be a point, let's say $t_1$, such that $lambda(t_1)=1$ or $lambda(t_1)=2$ and that conflicts with the uniqueness of the solution since it would have an intersecting point with one of the constant solutions.



But I don't understand this: The constant solutions don't even solve the IVP if $x_0in ]1,2[$, so why is it a problem that those solutions intersect?



Is the point here that a solution $lambda$ for the IVP $x(t_0)=x_0$ would then also solve the IVP with $x(t_1)=1$ which is soled by the constant solution and therefor they must coincide?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I have a misunderstanding regarding a very common reasoning:



Let's i.e. look at the IVP $dot x=f(x), x(t_0)=x_0$ with $f(x)=(x-1)(x-2)$. Now, for $x_0in ]1,2[$ there can be made an argument that the solution always stays in between $]1,2[$.



The usual way to reason this is since otherwise there would be a point, let's say $t_1$, such that $lambda(t_1)=1$ or $lambda(t_1)=2$ and that conflicts with the uniqueness of the solution since it would have an intersecting point with one of the constant solutions.



But I don't understand this: The constant solutions don't even solve the IVP if $x_0in ]1,2[$, so why is it a problem that those solutions intersect?



Is the point here that a solution $lambda$ for the IVP $x(t_0)=x_0$ would then also solve the IVP with $x(t_1)=1$ which is soled by the constant solution and therefor they must coincide?







ordinary-differential-equations initial-value-problems






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asked Dec 19 '18 at 15:55









RedLanternRedLantern

415




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  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you get an IVP at $t_1$ that has by assumption two different solutions, contradicting uniqueness.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:18










  • $begingroup$
    Since we can solve IVP backwards, $x(t_1)=1$ determines past values of $x$ as $x(t)=1, t<t_1.$
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – RedLantern
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:43


















  • $begingroup$
    Yes, you get an IVP at $t_1$ that has by assumption two different solutions, contradicting uniqueness.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:18










  • $begingroup$
    Since we can solve IVP backwards, $x(t_1)=1$ determines past values of $x$ as $x(t)=1, t<t_1.$
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    Okay, thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – RedLantern
    Dec 19 '18 at 16:43
















$begingroup$
Yes, you get an IVP at $t_1$ that has by assumption two different solutions, contradicting uniqueness.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Dec 19 '18 at 16:18




$begingroup$
Yes, you get an IVP at $t_1$ that has by assumption two different solutions, contradicting uniqueness.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Dec 19 '18 at 16:18












$begingroup$
Since we can solve IVP backwards, $x(t_1)=1$ determines past values of $x$ as $x(t)=1, t<t_1.$
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 19 '18 at 16:36




$begingroup$
Since we can solve IVP backwards, $x(t_1)=1$ determines past values of $x$ as $x(t)=1, t<t_1.$
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 19 '18 at 16:36












$begingroup$
Okay, thanks a lot!
$endgroup$
– RedLantern
Dec 19 '18 at 16:43




$begingroup$
Okay, thanks a lot!
$endgroup$
– RedLantern
Dec 19 '18 at 16:43










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$begingroup$

Firstly, the IVP
$$ dot{x}=f(x),x(t_0)=x_0.tag{1} $$
has a unique solution for $x_0in]1,2[$. Clearly $x=underline{x}(t)equiv1$ is a subsolution of (1) and $x=bar{x}(t)equiv2$ is a supersolution of (1). Since $underline{x}(t)le bar{x}(t)$. Therefore there is a unique solution $x=x(t)$ such that
$$ underline{x}(t)le x(t)le bar{x}(t). $$
Namely the solution always stays between $]1,2[$ if $x_0in]1,2[$.






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    $begingroup$

    Firstly, the IVP
    $$ dot{x}=f(x),x(t_0)=x_0.tag{1} $$
    has a unique solution for $x_0in]1,2[$. Clearly $x=underline{x}(t)equiv1$ is a subsolution of (1) and $x=bar{x}(t)equiv2$ is a supersolution of (1). Since $underline{x}(t)le bar{x}(t)$. Therefore there is a unique solution $x=x(t)$ such that
    $$ underline{x}(t)le x(t)le bar{x}(t). $$
    Namely the solution always stays between $]1,2[$ if $x_0in]1,2[$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Firstly, the IVP
      $$ dot{x}=f(x),x(t_0)=x_0.tag{1} $$
      has a unique solution for $x_0in]1,2[$. Clearly $x=underline{x}(t)equiv1$ is a subsolution of (1) and $x=bar{x}(t)equiv2$ is a supersolution of (1). Since $underline{x}(t)le bar{x}(t)$. Therefore there is a unique solution $x=x(t)$ such that
      $$ underline{x}(t)le x(t)le bar{x}(t). $$
      Namely the solution always stays between $]1,2[$ if $x_0in]1,2[$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















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        $begingroup$

        Firstly, the IVP
        $$ dot{x}=f(x),x(t_0)=x_0.tag{1} $$
        has a unique solution for $x_0in]1,2[$. Clearly $x=underline{x}(t)equiv1$ is a subsolution of (1) and $x=bar{x}(t)equiv2$ is a supersolution of (1). Since $underline{x}(t)le bar{x}(t)$. Therefore there is a unique solution $x=x(t)$ such that
        $$ underline{x}(t)le x(t)le bar{x}(t). $$
        Namely the solution always stays between $]1,2[$ if $x_0in]1,2[$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Firstly, the IVP
        $$ dot{x}=f(x),x(t_0)=x_0.tag{1} $$
        has a unique solution for $x_0in]1,2[$. Clearly $x=underline{x}(t)equiv1$ is a subsolution of (1) and $x=bar{x}(t)equiv2$ is a supersolution of (1). Since $underline{x}(t)le bar{x}(t)$. Therefore there is a unique solution $x=x(t)$ such that
        $$ underline{x}(t)le x(t)le bar{x}(t). $$
        Namely the solution always stays between $]1,2[$ if $x_0in]1,2[$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 20 '18 at 14:38









        xpaulxpaul

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