Counterexample to: “If a function is continuous in a point $x_0$ then it is defined in a neighborhood of...











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I'm looking for a counterexample to the statement:




If a function is continuous in a point $x_0$ then it is defined in a
neighborhood of that point.




If I take



$f: mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as $f(x):=x$



Then it is continuous in any point $x_0 in mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}$ since $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=x_0 forall x_0 in mathbb{R}$, nevertheless it is not defined in any neighbourhood of any point $x_0 in mathbb{R}$.



Is this counterexample correct?



Edit



Definition of neighborhood of $x_0$: Let $x_0 in mathbb{R}$ and $r>0$ a real number. We call a neighborhood of $x_0$ with radius $r$ the open and bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$ $(x_0-r,x_0+r)$.



Definition of limit: Let $x_0$ be a limit point for a function $f(x)$. We write $lim_{x to x_0} f(x)=l iff forall epsilon >0 exists delta >0 mid forall xin domf wedge 0<mid x-x_0 mid <delta implies mid f(x)-lmid <epsilon$



Definition of continuity of $f$ in $x_0$: $f$ is continuous in a point $x_0$ of its domain iff $forall epsilon >0 exists delta>0 mid forall x in dom(f) wedge mid x-x_0 mid < delta implies mid f(x)-f(x_0)mid <epsilon$










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  • What is your definition of neighborhood?
    – B. Freitas
    Jan 6 '16 at 16:58






  • 2




    The word "neighborhood" is relative to a set. So it is unclear what you are really asking. For example, the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb Q$ are different from the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb R$. So it is definitely possible to define a function on $mathbb Q$ that is continuous at $0$, but isn't defined on the irrationals. But it is still defined on a neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb Q$.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:00










  • Note that it is always possible to have "$xto x_0$" without requiring there be an interval of values through which $x$ travels (I'm assuming you're thinking about the real line). You can approach a point through discrete points, or even through a finite number (including only the point itself) of points.
    – MPW
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:04










  • "Defininition of continuity that uses limits" is not actually a useful definition. What does the definition mean, when there are lots of points where the function isn't defined? What does $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ mean then?
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:05












  • @ThomasAndrews I added the "epsilon-delta" definition, but, as far as I know, that is equivalent to the condition $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=f(x_0)$ if $x_0$ is a limit point in the domain of $f$ (and that is the case). The definition of limit does not require that the function is defined in every point of a neighborhood of $x_0$
    – Gianolepo
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:25

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I'm looking for a counterexample to the statement:




If a function is continuous in a point $x_0$ then it is defined in a
neighborhood of that point.




If I take



$f: mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as $f(x):=x$



Then it is continuous in any point $x_0 in mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}$ since $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=x_0 forall x_0 in mathbb{R}$, nevertheless it is not defined in any neighbourhood of any point $x_0 in mathbb{R}$.



Is this counterexample correct?



Edit



Definition of neighborhood of $x_0$: Let $x_0 in mathbb{R}$ and $r>0$ a real number. We call a neighborhood of $x_0$ with radius $r$ the open and bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$ $(x_0-r,x_0+r)$.



Definition of limit: Let $x_0$ be a limit point for a function $f(x)$. We write $lim_{x to x_0} f(x)=l iff forall epsilon >0 exists delta >0 mid forall xin domf wedge 0<mid x-x_0 mid <delta implies mid f(x)-lmid <epsilon$



Definition of continuity of $f$ in $x_0$: $f$ is continuous in a point $x_0$ of its domain iff $forall epsilon >0 exists delta>0 mid forall x in dom(f) wedge mid x-x_0 mid < delta implies mid f(x)-f(x_0)mid <epsilon$










share|cite|improve this question
























  • What is your definition of neighborhood?
    – B. Freitas
    Jan 6 '16 at 16:58






  • 2




    The word "neighborhood" is relative to a set. So it is unclear what you are really asking. For example, the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb Q$ are different from the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb R$. So it is definitely possible to define a function on $mathbb Q$ that is continuous at $0$, but isn't defined on the irrationals. But it is still defined on a neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb Q$.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:00










  • Note that it is always possible to have "$xto x_0$" without requiring there be an interval of values through which $x$ travels (I'm assuming you're thinking about the real line). You can approach a point through discrete points, or even through a finite number (including only the point itself) of points.
    – MPW
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:04










  • "Defininition of continuity that uses limits" is not actually a useful definition. What does the definition mean, when there are lots of points where the function isn't defined? What does $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ mean then?
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:05












  • @ThomasAndrews I added the "epsilon-delta" definition, but, as far as I know, that is equivalent to the condition $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=f(x_0)$ if $x_0$ is a limit point in the domain of $f$ (and that is the case). The definition of limit does not require that the function is defined in every point of a neighborhood of $x_0$
    – Gianolepo
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:25















up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm looking for a counterexample to the statement:




If a function is continuous in a point $x_0$ then it is defined in a
neighborhood of that point.




If I take



$f: mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as $f(x):=x$



Then it is continuous in any point $x_0 in mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}$ since $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=x_0 forall x_0 in mathbb{R}$, nevertheless it is not defined in any neighbourhood of any point $x_0 in mathbb{R}$.



Is this counterexample correct?



Edit



Definition of neighborhood of $x_0$: Let $x_0 in mathbb{R}$ and $r>0$ a real number. We call a neighborhood of $x_0$ with radius $r$ the open and bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$ $(x_0-r,x_0+r)$.



Definition of limit: Let $x_0$ be a limit point for a function $f(x)$. We write $lim_{x to x_0} f(x)=l iff forall epsilon >0 exists delta >0 mid forall xin domf wedge 0<mid x-x_0 mid <delta implies mid f(x)-lmid <epsilon$



Definition of continuity of $f$ in $x_0$: $f$ is continuous in a point $x_0$ of its domain iff $forall epsilon >0 exists delta>0 mid forall x in dom(f) wedge mid x-x_0 mid < delta implies mid f(x)-f(x_0)mid <epsilon$










share|cite|improve this question















I'm looking for a counterexample to the statement:




If a function is continuous in a point $x_0$ then it is defined in a
neighborhood of that point.




If I take



$f: mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ defined as $f(x):=x$



Then it is continuous in any point $x_0 in mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}$ since $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=x_0 forall x_0 in mathbb{R}$, nevertheless it is not defined in any neighbourhood of any point $x_0 in mathbb{R}$.



Is this counterexample correct?



Edit



Definition of neighborhood of $x_0$: Let $x_0 in mathbb{R}$ and $r>0$ a real number. We call a neighborhood of $x_0$ with radius $r$ the open and bounded interval in $mathbb{R}$ $(x_0-r,x_0+r)$.



Definition of limit: Let $x_0$ be a limit point for a function $f(x)$. We write $lim_{x to x_0} f(x)=l iff forall epsilon >0 exists delta >0 mid forall xin domf wedge 0<mid x-x_0 mid <delta implies mid f(x)-lmid <epsilon$



Definition of continuity of $f$ in $x_0$: $f$ is continuous in a point $x_0$ of its domain iff $forall epsilon >0 exists delta>0 mid forall x in dom(f) wedge mid x-x_0 mid < delta implies mid f(x)-f(x_0)mid <epsilon$







calculus continuity






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edited Jan 6 '16 at 17:44

























asked Jan 6 '16 at 16:56









Gianolepo

731918




731918












  • What is your definition of neighborhood?
    – B. Freitas
    Jan 6 '16 at 16:58






  • 2




    The word "neighborhood" is relative to a set. So it is unclear what you are really asking. For example, the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb Q$ are different from the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb R$. So it is definitely possible to define a function on $mathbb Q$ that is continuous at $0$, but isn't defined on the irrationals. But it is still defined on a neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb Q$.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:00










  • Note that it is always possible to have "$xto x_0$" without requiring there be an interval of values through which $x$ travels (I'm assuming you're thinking about the real line). You can approach a point through discrete points, or even through a finite number (including only the point itself) of points.
    – MPW
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:04










  • "Defininition of continuity that uses limits" is not actually a useful definition. What does the definition mean, when there are lots of points where the function isn't defined? What does $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ mean then?
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:05












  • @ThomasAndrews I added the "epsilon-delta" definition, but, as far as I know, that is equivalent to the condition $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=f(x_0)$ if $x_0$ is a limit point in the domain of $f$ (and that is the case). The definition of limit does not require that the function is defined in every point of a neighborhood of $x_0$
    – Gianolepo
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:25




















  • What is your definition of neighborhood?
    – B. Freitas
    Jan 6 '16 at 16:58






  • 2




    The word "neighborhood" is relative to a set. So it is unclear what you are really asking. For example, the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb Q$ are different from the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb R$. So it is definitely possible to define a function on $mathbb Q$ that is continuous at $0$, but isn't defined on the irrationals. But it is still defined on a neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb Q$.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:00










  • Note that it is always possible to have "$xto x_0$" without requiring there be an interval of values through which $x$ travels (I'm assuming you're thinking about the real line). You can approach a point through discrete points, or even through a finite number (including only the point itself) of points.
    – MPW
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:04










  • "Defininition of continuity that uses limits" is not actually a useful definition. What does the definition mean, when there are lots of points where the function isn't defined? What does $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ mean then?
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:05












  • @ThomasAndrews I added the "epsilon-delta" definition, but, as far as I know, that is equivalent to the condition $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=f(x_0)$ if $x_0$ is a limit point in the domain of $f$ (and that is the case). The definition of limit does not require that the function is defined in every point of a neighborhood of $x_0$
    – Gianolepo
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:25


















What is your definition of neighborhood?
– B. Freitas
Jan 6 '16 at 16:58




What is your definition of neighborhood?
– B. Freitas
Jan 6 '16 at 16:58




2




2




The word "neighborhood" is relative to a set. So it is unclear what you are really asking. For example, the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb Q$ are different from the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb R$. So it is definitely possible to define a function on $mathbb Q$ that is continuous at $0$, but isn't defined on the irrationals. But it is still defined on a neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb Q$.
– Thomas Andrews
Jan 6 '16 at 17:00




The word "neighborhood" is relative to a set. So it is unclear what you are really asking. For example, the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb Q$ are different from the neighborhoods of $0$ in $mathbb R$. So it is definitely possible to define a function on $mathbb Q$ that is continuous at $0$, but isn't defined on the irrationals. But it is still defined on a neighborhood of $0$ in $mathbb Q$.
– Thomas Andrews
Jan 6 '16 at 17:00












Note that it is always possible to have "$xto x_0$" without requiring there be an interval of values through which $x$ travels (I'm assuming you're thinking about the real line). You can approach a point through discrete points, or even through a finite number (including only the point itself) of points.
– MPW
Jan 6 '16 at 17:04




Note that it is always possible to have "$xto x_0$" without requiring there be an interval of values through which $x$ travels (I'm assuming you're thinking about the real line). You can approach a point through discrete points, or even through a finite number (including only the point itself) of points.
– MPW
Jan 6 '16 at 17:04












"Defininition of continuity that uses limits" is not actually a useful definition. What does the definition mean, when there are lots of points where the function isn't defined? What does $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ mean then?
– Thomas Andrews
Jan 6 '16 at 17:05






"Defininition of continuity that uses limits" is not actually a useful definition. What does the definition mean, when there are lots of points where the function isn't defined? What does $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ mean then?
– Thomas Andrews
Jan 6 '16 at 17:05














@ThomasAndrews I added the "epsilon-delta" definition, but, as far as I know, that is equivalent to the condition $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=f(x_0)$ if $x_0$ is a limit point in the domain of $f$ (and that is the case). The definition of limit does not require that the function is defined in every point of a neighborhood of $x_0$
– Gianolepo
Jan 6 '16 at 17:25






@ThomasAndrews I added the "epsilon-delta" definition, but, as far as I know, that is equivalent to the condition $lim_{xto x_0} f(x)=f(x_0)$ if $x_0$ is a limit point in the domain of $f$ (and that is the case). The definition of limit does not require that the function is defined in every point of a neighborhood of $x_0$
– Gianolepo
Jan 6 '16 at 17:25












3 Answers
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up vote
1
down vote













Assuming you are using the following definition your counterexample is correct. You could take $f(x)=0$ for all $xin mathbb{Q}$ for an even simpler example with a dense domain.



Let $x in X$. If $f:X to Y$ then we say that $f$ is continuous at $x$ if for all $varepsilon>0$ exists $delta>0$ such that



$$d_Y(f(x),f(y)) < varepsilon$$



whenever
$$yin X, ~ d_X(x,y) < delta$$



Note that this definition is equivalent to yours when $x$ is a limit point of the domain.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Well, your definition requires $f$ to be defined on all of $X$. That's not the case for our OP, who is not talking about neighborhoods in $X$ but in some space containing $X$.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:29










  • That's precisely the point. The neighb. in this bigger space have nothing to do with the continuity of $f$. Also, $X$ is just the domain of $f$ so I don't understand what you mean by his definition not requiring $f$ to be defined in $X$.
    – B. Freitas
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:56




















up vote
0
down vote













If $f$ is continuous at $x_0$ then $f^{-1}(mathrm{open})$ is open. So $f$ has to be defined in a neighbourhood of $x_0$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    -2
    down vote













    No, this is not a valid counterexample because $f$ is not continuous anywhere which I will show as follows.



    $$lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=f(x) iff forall varepsilon > 0, exists delta >0: [x in V_delta(x_0) implies f(x) in V_varepsilon(x_0)]$$



    (where $V_a(b)$ is the open $a$-neighbourhood of $b$)



    For any $varepsilon,delta>0$, I can obviously pick for $x$ any rational $q in V_delta(x_0)$, in which case $f(x)$ will not be defined and thus cannot be an element of $V_varepsilon(x_0)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Since OP is talking about limit points I assume his definition of limit is not so naive.
      – B. Freitas
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:19











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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
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    up vote
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    down vote













    Assuming you are using the following definition your counterexample is correct. You could take $f(x)=0$ for all $xin mathbb{Q}$ for an even simpler example with a dense domain.



    Let $x in X$. If $f:X to Y$ then we say that $f$ is continuous at $x$ if for all $varepsilon>0$ exists $delta>0$ such that



    $$d_Y(f(x),f(y)) < varepsilon$$



    whenever
    $$yin X, ~ d_X(x,y) < delta$$



    Note that this definition is equivalent to yours when $x$ is a limit point of the domain.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Well, your definition requires $f$ to be defined on all of $X$. That's not the case for our OP, who is not talking about neighborhoods in $X$ but in some space containing $X$.
      – Thomas Andrews
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:29










    • That's precisely the point. The neighb. in this bigger space have nothing to do with the continuity of $f$. Also, $X$ is just the domain of $f$ so I don't understand what you mean by his definition not requiring $f$ to be defined in $X$.
      – B. Freitas
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:56

















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Assuming you are using the following definition your counterexample is correct. You could take $f(x)=0$ for all $xin mathbb{Q}$ for an even simpler example with a dense domain.



    Let $x in X$. If $f:X to Y$ then we say that $f$ is continuous at $x$ if for all $varepsilon>0$ exists $delta>0$ such that



    $$d_Y(f(x),f(y)) < varepsilon$$



    whenever
    $$yin X, ~ d_X(x,y) < delta$$



    Note that this definition is equivalent to yours when $x$ is a limit point of the domain.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Well, your definition requires $f$ to be defined on all of $X$. That's not the case for our OP, who is not talking about neighborhoods in $X$ but in some space containing $X$.
      – Thomas Andrews
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:29










    • That's precisely the point. The neighb. in this bigger space have nothing to do with the continuity of $f$. Also, $X$ is just the domain of $f$ so I don't understand what you mean by his definition not requiring $f$ to be defined in $X$.
      – B. Freitas
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:56















    up vote
    1
    down vote










    up vote
    1
    down vote









    Assuming you are using the following definition your counterexample is correct. You could take $f(x)=0$ for all $xin mathbb{Q}$ for an even simpler example with a dense domain.



    Let $x in X$. If $f:X to Y$ then we say that $f$ is continuous at $x$ if for all $varepsilon>0$ exists $delta>0$ such that



    $$d_Y(f(x),f(y)) < varepsilon$$



    whenever
    $$yin X, ~ d_X(x,y) < delta$$



    Note that this definition is equivalent to yours when $x$ is a limit point of the domain.






    share|cite|improve this answer












    Assuming you are using the following definition your counterexample is correct. You could take $f(x)=0$ for all $xin mathbb{Q}$ for an even simpler example with a dense domain.



    Let $x in X$. If $f:X to Y$ then we say that $f$ is continuous at $x$ if for all $varepsilon>0$ exists $delta>0$ such that



    $$d_Y(f(x),f(y)) < varepsilon$$



    whenever
    $$yin X, ~ d_X(x,y) < delta$$



    Note that this definition is equivalent to yours when $x$ is a limit point of the domain.







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 6 '16 at 17:12









    B. Freitas

    491212




    491212












    • Well, your definition requires $f$ to be defined on all of $X$. That's not the case for our OP, who is not talking about neighborhoods in $X$ but in some space containing $X$.
      – Thomas Andrews
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:29










    • That's precisely the point. The neighb. in this bigger space have nothing to do with the continuity of $f$. Also, $X$ is just the domain of $f$ so I don't understand what you mean by his definition not requiring $f$ to be defined in $X$.
      – B. Freitas
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:56




















    • Well, your definition requires $f$ to be defined on all of $X$. That's not the case for our OP, who is not talking about neighborhoods in $X$ but in some space containing $X$.
      – Thomas Andrews
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:29










    • That's precisely the point. The neighb. in this bigger space have nothing to do with the continuity of $f$. Also, $X$ is just the domain of $f$ so I don't understand what you mean by his definition not requiring $f$ to be defined in $X$.
      – B. Freitas
      Jan 6 '16 at 17:56


















    Well, your definition requires $f$ to be defined on all of $X$. That's not the case for our OP, who is not talking about neighborhoods in $X$ but in some space containing $X$.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:29




    Well, your definition requires $f$ to be defined on all of $X$. That's not the case for our OP, who is not talking about neighborhoods in $X$ but in some space containing $X$.
    – Thomas Andrews
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:29












    That's precisely the point. The neighb. in this bigger space have nothing to do with the continuity of $f$. Also, $X$ is just the domain of $f$ so I don't understand what you mean by his definition not requiring $f$ to be defined in $X$.
    – B. Freitas
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:56






    That's precisely the point. The neighb. in this bigger space have nothing to do with the continuity of $f$. Also, $X$ is just the domain of $f$ so I don't understand what you mean by his definition not requiring $f$ to be defined in $X$.
    – B. Freitas
    Jan 6 '16 at 17:56












    up vote
    0
    down vote













    If $f$ is continuous at $x_0$ then $f^{-1}(mathrm{open})$ is open. So $f$ has to be defined in a neighbourhood of $x_0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      If $f$ is continuous at $x_0$ then $f^{-1}(mathrm{open})$ is open. So $f$ has to be defined in a neighbourhood of $x_0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        If $f$ is continuous at $x_0$ then $f^{-1}(mathrm{open})$ is open. So $f$ has to be defined in a neighbourhood of $x_0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        If $f$ is continuous at $x_0$ then $f^{-1}(mathrm{open})$ is open. So $f$ has to be defined in a neighbourhood of $x_0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered yesterday









        Richard Martin

        1,3438




        1,3438






















            up vote
            -2
            down vote













            No, this is not a valid counterexample because $f$ is not continuous anywhere which I will show as follows.



            $$lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=f(x) iff forall varepsilon > 0, exists delta >0: [x in V_delta(x_0) implies f(x) in V_varepsilon(x_0)]$$



            (where $V_a(b)$ is the open $a$-neighbourhood of $b$)



            For any $varepsilon,delta>0$, I can obviously pick for $x$ any rational $q in V_delta(x_0)$, in which case $f(x)$ will not be defined and thus cannot be an element of $V_varepsilon(x_0)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Since OP is talking about limit points I assume his definition of limit is not so naive.
              – B. Freitas
              Jan 6 '16 at 17:19















            up vote
            -2
            down vote













            No, this is not a valid counterexample because $f$ is not continuous anywhere which I will show as follows.



            $$lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=f(x) iff forall varepsilon > 0, exists delta >0: [x in V_delta(x_0) implies f(x) in V_varepsilon(x_0)]$$



            (where $V_a(b)$ is the open $a$-neighbourhood of $b$)



            For any $varepsilon,delta>0$, I can obviously pick for $x$ any rational $q in V_delta(x_0)$, in which case $f(x)$ will not be defined and thus cannot be an element of $V_varepsilon(x_0)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Since OP is talking about limit points I assume his definition of limit is not so naive.
              – B. Freitas
              Jan 6 '16 at 17:19













            up vote
            -2
            down vote










            up vote
            -2
            down vote









            No, this is not a valid counterexample because $f$ is not continuous anywhere which I will show as follows.



            $$lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=f(x) iff forall varepsilon > 0, exists delta >0: [x in V_delta(x_0) implies f(x) in V_varepsilon(x_0)]$$



            (where $V_a(b)$ is the open $a$-neighbourhood of $b$)



            For any $varepsilon,delta>0$, I can obviously pick for $x$ any rational $q in V_delta(x_0)$, in which case $f(x)$ will not be defined and thus cannot be an element of $V_varepsilon(x_0)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            No, this is not a valid counterexample because $f$ is not continuous anywhere which I will show as follows.



            $$lim_{xto x_0}f(x)=f(x) iff forall varepsilon > 0, exists delta >0: [x in V_delta(x_0) implies f(x) in V_varepsilon(x_0)]$$



            (where $V_a(b)$ is the open $a$-neighbourhood of $b$)



            For any $varepsilon,delta>0$, I can obviously pick for $x$ any rational $q in V_delta(x_0)$, in which case $f(x)$ will not be defined and thus cannot be an element of $V_varepsilon(x_0)$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 6 '16 at 17:15









            user1892304

            1,402817




            1,402817












            • Since OP is talking about limit points I assume his definition of limit is not so naive.
              – B. Freitas
              Jan 6 '16 at 17:19


















            • Since OP is talking about limit points I assume his definition of limit is not so naive.
              – B. Freitas
              Jan 6 '16 at 17:19
















            Since OP is talking about limit points I assume his definition of limit is not so naive.
            – B. Freitas
            Jan 6 '16 at 17:19




            Since OP is talking about limit points I assume his definition of limit is not so naive.
            – B. Freitas
            Jan 6 '16 at 17:19


















             

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