If $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb R$. Does it mean $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$.











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Suppose that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
R$
.



1) Does it mean that $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$?



2) Is it possible that $f'(c)$ does not exist?



3) What is the difference whether $f$ is continuous or not?



4) If $f$ is continuous, how to prove the statement?










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    Suppose that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
    R$
    .



    1) Does it mean that $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$?



    2) Is it possible that $f'(c)$ does not exist?



    3) What is the difference whether $f$ is continuous or not?



    4) If $f$ is continuous, how to prove the statement?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      Suppose that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
      R$
      .



      1) Does it mean that $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$?



      2) Is it possible that $f'(c)$ does not exist?



      3) What is the difference whether $f$ is continuous or not?



      4) If $f$ is continuous, how to prove the statement?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Suppose that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
      R$
      .



      1) Does it mean that $f$ is differentiable at $c$ and $f'(c) = l$?



      2) Is it possible that $f'(c)$ does not exist?



      3) What is the difference whether $f$ is continuous or not?



      4) If $f$ is continuous, how to prove the statement?







      real-analysis






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Oct 31 at 9:58









      Robert Z

      90k1056128




      90k1056128










      asked Oct 31 at 9:27









      kenkenb

      15718




      15718






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you give more hints?
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 10:55




















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12











          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you give more hints?
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 10:55

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Could you give more hints?
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 10:55















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Yes, if $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l in Bbb
          R$
          then $f$ is differentiable at $c$ provided that $f$ is continuous at $c$. Then by the Mean Value Theorem, there is $t_x$ between $x$ and $c$ such that
          $$frac{f(x)-f(c)}{x-c}=f'(t_x).$$
          It follows that, as $xto c$, we have $t_xto c$ and $f'(t_x)to l$.
          Hence $f'(c)$ exists and it is equal to $l$.



          Of course, if $f$ is not continuous at $c$ or if $f$ is not even defined at $c$, then $f$ is not differentiable at $c$. Take for example
          $$f(x) = begin{cases}1 & text{if $x=0$}\ x & text{otherwise} end{cases}.$$
          Then $lim_{xto 0}f'(x)=1$, but the $f$ is not differentiable at $0$:
          $$lim_{xto 0^+}frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=lim_{xto 0^+}frac{x-1}{x}=-infty.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Oct 31 at 9:49

























          answered Oct 31 at 9:33









          Robert Z

          90k1056128




          90k1056128












          • Could you give more hints?
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 10:55




















          • Could you give more hints?
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 9:35










          • @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
            – Deepakms
            Oct 31 at 9:53












          • @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 9:55










          • @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
            – Robert Z
            Oct 31 at 10:16












          • @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
            – kenkenb
            Oct 31 at 10:55


















          Could you give more hints?
          – kenkenb
          Oct 31 at 9:35




          Could you give more hints?
          – kenkenb
          Oct 31 at 9:35












          @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
          – Deepakms
          Oct 31 at 9:53






          @Robert Z How do you get that $f'(t_x)to l$ as $t_x to c$ implies $f'(c) = l$ ? Wouldn't you require $f$ to be $C^1$ for that to happen?
          – Deepakms
          Oct 31 at 9:53














          @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
          – Robert Z
          Oct 31 at 9:55




          @Deepakms NO. It follows from the assumption that $lim limits_{x to c} f'(x) = l$.
          – Robert Z
          Oct 31 at 9:55












          @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
          – Robert Z
          Oct 31 at 10:16






          @kenkenb Maybe you could show some effort and fill the gaps...
          – Robert Z
          Oct 31 at 10:16














          @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
          – kenkenb
          Oct 31 at 10:55






          @ Robert Z ok. thanks for your effort anyway
          – kenkenb
          Oct 31 at 10:55












          up vote
          2
          down vote













          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12













          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          It is possible that $f'(c)$ does not even exist. The existence of a limit of derivative does not even guarantee continuity of $f$ at $c$. For example consider a constant function with a jump discontinuity at $c$.
          $$F(x) = begin{cases}0 & x neq 1 \ 1 & x=1end{cases}$$ is not differentiable at 1 even though the limit of derivative exist when $x$ tends to 1.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Oct 31 at 9:39

























          answered Oct 31 at 9:32









          Deepakms

          368114




          368114








          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12














          • 2




            In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Oct 31 at 10:12








          2




          2




          In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
          – Hagen von Eitzen
          Oct 31 at 10:12




          In fact , it is not even mean that $f$ is defined at $c$
          – Hagen von Eitzen
          Oct 31 at 10:12


















           

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