Is the series $‎sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{2^n}‎$ convergent?











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$B_n(z)‎‎$‎‎ ‎is the Bernoulli polynomial, ‎we know that the series



$$sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{n!}‎$$



‎is ‎convergent ‎for ‎every ‎‎$zin‎mathbb{C}‎$‎ ‎and its‎ ‎closed form ‎is equal to $$‎‎‎frac{e^z}{e-1}‎.$$ Now I deal to the series ‎$$‎‎sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{2^n}‎$$ in my research.



(a) Is the above series convergent? If yes, for which $z$?‎



(b) ‎Does ‎the ‎series ‎have ‎any ‎closed ‎form?



(c) ‎Does ‎there ‎exist ‎any method or ‎related ‎books ‎or ‎similar ‎reference‎?










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  • @ Raptor thanks
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 21 at 16:23










  • I've changed around some of the formatting to make it more readable; please feel free to roll back if there's anything you wish to change.
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Nov 21 at 16:25










  • @Carl Schildkraut thanks for your changing.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 21 at 16:34















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
2












$B_n(z)‎‎$‎‎ ‎is the Bernoulli polynomial, ‎we know that the series



$$sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{n!}‎$$



‎is ‎convergent ‎for ‎every ‎‎$zin‎mathbb{C}‎$‎ ‎and its‎ ‎closed form ‎is equal to $$‎‎‎frac{e^z}{e-1}‎.$$ Now I deal to the series ‎$$‎‎sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{2^n}‎$$ in my research.



(a) Is the above series convergent? If yes, for which $z$?‎



(b) ‎Does ‎the ‎series ‎have ‎any ‎closed ‎form?



(c) ‎Does ‎there ‎exist ‎any method or ‎related ‎books ‎or ‎similar ‎reference‎?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • @ Raptor thanks
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 21 at 16:23










  • I've changed around some of the formatting to make it more readable; please feel free to roll back if there's anything you wish to change.
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Nov 21 at 16:25










  • @Carl Schildkraut thanks for your changing.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 21 at 16:34













up vote
2
down vote

favorite
2









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
2






2





$B_n(z)‎‎$‎‎ ‎is the Bernoulli polynomial, ‎we know that the series



$$sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{n!}‎$$



‎is ‎convergent ‎for ‎every ‎‎$zin‎mathbb{C}‎$‎ ‎and its‎ ‎closed form ‎is equal to $$‎‎‎frac{e^z}{e-1}‎.$$ Now I deal to the series ‎$$‎‎sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{2^n}‎$$ in my research.



(a) Is the above series convergent? If yes, for which $z$?‎



(b) ‎Does ‎the ‎series ‎have ‎any ‎closed ‎form?



(c) ‎Does ‎there ‎exist ‎any method or ‎related ‎books ‎or ‎similar ‎reference‎?










share|cite|improve this question















$B_n(z)‎‎$‎‎ ‎is the Bernoulli polynomial, ‎we know that the series



$$sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{n!}‎$$



‎is ‎convergent ‎for ‎every ‎‎$zin‎mathbb{C}‎$‎ ‎and its‎ ‎closed form ‎is equal to $$‎‎‎frac{e^z}{e-1}‎.$$ Now I deal to the series ‎$$‎‎sum_{n=0}^{‎infty‎}‎frac{B_n(z)}{2^n}‎$$ in my research.



(a) Is the above series convergent? If yes, for which $z$?‎



(b) ‎Does ‎the ‎series ‎have ‎any ‎closed ‎form?



(c) ‎Does ‎there ‎exist ‎any method or ‎related ‎books ‎or ‎similar ‎reference‎?







sequences-and-series convergence bernoulli-numbers bernoulli-polynomials






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edited Nov 21 at 16:24









Carl Schildkraut

10.6k11438




10.6k11438










asked Nov 21 at 16:19









soodehMehboodi

52228




52228












  • @ Raptor thanks
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 21 at 16:23










  • I've changed around some of the formatting to make it more readable; please feel free to roll back if there's anything you wish to change.
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Nov 21 at 16:25










  • @Carl Schildkraut thanks for your changing.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 21 at 16:34


















  • @ Raptor thanks
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 21 at 16:23










  • I've changed around some of the formatting to make it more readable; please feel free to roll back if there's anything you wish to change.
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Nov 21 at 16:25










  • @Carl Schildkraut thanks for your changing.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 21 at 16:34
















@ Raptor thanks
– soodehMehboodi
Nov 21 at 16:23




@ Raptor thanks
– soodehMehboodi
Nov 21 at 16:23












I've changed around some of the formatting to make it more readable; please feel free to roll back if there's anything you wish to change.
– Carl Schildkraut
Nov 21 at 16:25




I've changed around some of the formatting to make it more readable; please feel free to roll back if there's anything you wish to change.
– Carl Schildkraut
Nov 21 at 16:25












@Carl Schildkraut thanks for your changing.
– soodehMehboodi
Nov 21 at 16:34




@Carl Schildkraut thanks for your changing.
– soodehMehboodi
Nov 21 at 16:34










1 Answer
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Formally, the o.g.f. comes from the Laplace transform of the e.g.f. That is,
given $$ frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} = sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) frac{t^n}{n!}$$
$$ sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) s^{-1-n} = int_0^infty frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} e^{-st}; dt = Psi^{(1)}(1-z+s) $$
The right side is singular when $1-z+s$ is a nonpositive integer.
If the series had a positive radius of convergence, the set of singularities would have to be bounded. Since it is not, we conclude that the radius of convergence is $0$. In particular,
your series $sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) 2^{-n}$ diverges for all $z$.



EDIT: There' a simpler argument. The fact that the e.g.f.
$frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1}$ has finite radius of convergence (as it has singularities $t = 2 n pi i$ for nonzero integers $n$) means
that $limsup_n B_n r^n/n! > 0$ for some $r$. But that says
for some $r$ and $epsilon > 0$, $|B_n| ge epsilon n! r^{-n}$ infinitely often. For any $z ne 0$, $epsilon n! |z/r|^n to infty$, so your series can't converge.



More generally, whenever the e.g.f. of a sequence has a finite radius of convergence, the o.g.f. has radius of convergence $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • would you tell me, How can I get more information about the mentioned series and your solution, Also, particularly your edit . Thanks a lot.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 22 at 17:48











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up vote
2
down vote













Formally, the o.g.f. comes from the Laplace transform of the e.g.f. That is,
given $$ frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} = sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) frac{t^n}{n!}$$
$$ sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) s^{-1-n} = int_0^infty frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} e^{-st}; dt = Psi^{(1)}(1-z+s) $$
The right side is singular when $1-z+s$ is a nonpositive integer.
If the series had a positive radius of convergence, the set of singularities would have to be bounded. Since it is not, we conclude that the radius of convergence is $0$. In particular,
your series $sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) 2^{-n}$ diverges for all $z$.



EDIT: There' a simpler argument. The fact that the e.g.f.
$frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1}$ has finite radius of convergence (as it has singularities $t = 2 n pi i$ for nonzero integers $n$) means
that $limsup_n B_n r^n/n! > 0$ for some $r$. But that says
for some $r$ and $epsilon > 0$, $|B_n| ge epsilon n! r^{-n}$ infinitely often. For any $z ne 0$, $epsilon n! |z/r|^n to infty$, so your series can't converge.



More generally, whenever the e.g.f. of a sequence has a finite radius of convergence, the o.g.f. has radius of convergence $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • would you tell me, How can I get more information about the mentioned series and your solution, Also, particularly your edit . Thanks a lot.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 22 at 17:48















up vote
2
down vote













Formally, the o.g.f. comes from the Laplace transform of the e.g.f. That is,
given $$ frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} = sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) frac{t^n}{n!}$$
$$ sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) s^{-1-n} = int_0^infty frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} e^{-st}; dt = Psi^{(1)}(1-z+s) $$
The right side is singular when $1-z+s$ is a nonpositive integer.
If the series had a positive radius of convergence, the set of singularities would have to be bounded. Since it is not, we conclude that the radius of convergence is $0$. In particular,
your series $sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) 2^{-n}$ diverges for all $z$.



EDIT: There' a simpler argument. The fact that the e.g.f.
$frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1}$ has finite radius of convergence (as it has singularities $t = 2 n pi i$ for nonzero integers $n$) means
that $limsup_n B_n r^n/n! > 0$ for some $r$. But that says
for some $r$ and $epsilon > 0$, $|B_n| ge epsilon n! r^{-n}$ infinitely often. For any $z ne 0$, $epsilon n! |z/r|^n to infty$, so your series can't converge.



More generally, whenever the e.g.f. of a sequence has a finite radius of convergence, the o.g.f. has radius of convergence $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • would you tell me, How can I get more information about the mentioned series and your solution, Also, particularly your edit . Thanks a lot.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 22 at 17:48













up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









Formally, the o.g.f. comes from the Laplace transform of the e.g.f. That is,
given $$ frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} = sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) frac{t^n}{n!}$$
$$ sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) s^{-1-n} = int_0^infty frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} e^{-st}; dt = Psi^{(1)}(1-z+s) $$
The right side is singular when $1-z+s$ is a nonpositive integer.
If the series had a positive radius of convergence, the set of singularities would have to be bounded. Since it is not, we conclude that the radius of convergence is $0$. In particular,
your series $sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) 2^{-n}$ diverges for all $z$.



EDIT: There' a simpler argument. The fact that the e.g.f.
$frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1}$ has finite radius of convergence (as it has singularities $t = 2 n pi i$ for nonzero integers $n$) means
that $limsup_n B_n r^n/n! > 0$ for some $r$. But that says
for some $r$ and $epsilon > 0$, $|B_n| ge epsilon n! r^{-n}$ infinitely often. For any $z ne 0$, $epsilon n! |z/r|^n to infty$, so your series can't converge.



More generally, whenever the e.g.f. of a sequence has a finite radius of convergence, the o.g.f. has radius of convergence $0$.






share|cite|improve this answer














Formally, the o.g.f. comes from the Laplace transform of the e.g.f. That is,
given $$ frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} = sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) frac{t^n}{n!}$$
$$ sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) s^{-1-n} = int_0^infty frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1} e^{-st}; dt = Psi^{(1)}(1-z+s) $$
The right side is singular when $1-z+s$ is a nonpositive integer.
If the series had a positive radius of convergence, the set of singularities would have to be bounded. Since it is not, we conclude that the radius of convergence is $0$. In particular,
your series $sum_{n=0}^infty B_n(z) 2^{-n}$ diverges for all $z$.



EDIT: There' a simpler argument. The fact that the e.g.f.
$frac{t e^{zt}}{e^t-1}$ has finite radius of convergence (as it has singularities $t = 2 n pi i$ for nonzero integers $n$) means
that $limsup_n B_n r^n/n! > 0$ for some $r$. But that says
for some $r$ and $epsilon > 0$, $|B_n| ge epsilon n! r^{-n}$ infinitely often. For any $z ne 0$, $epsilon n! |z/r|^n to infty$, so your series can't converge.



More generally, whenever the e.g.f. of a sequence has a finite radius of convergence, the o.g.f. has radius of convergence $0$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 22 at 14:26

























answered Nov 21 at 16:33









Robert Israel

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  • would you tell me, How can I get more information about the mentioned series and your solution, Also, particularly your edit . Thanks a lot.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 22 at 17:48


















  • would you tell me, How can I get more information about the mentioned series and your solution, Also, particularly your edit . Thanks a lot.
    – soodehMehboodi
    Nov 22 at 17:48
















would you tell me, How can I get more information about the mentioned series and your solution, Also, particularly your edit . Thanks a lot.
– soodehMehboodi
Nov 22 at 17:48




would you tell me, How can I get more information about the mentioned series and your solution, Also, particularly your edit . Thanks a lot.
– soodehMehboodi
Nov 22 at 17:48


















 

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