Proof verification of $lim_{n to infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0$ for $|q| < 1$ using $epsilon$ definition











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Prove
$$
lim_{n to infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0
$$
for $|q| < 1$ using $epsilon$ definition.




Using the definition of a limit:



$$
lim_{nto infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0 stackrel{text{def}}{iff} { forallepsilon>0 ,exists Ninmathbb N, forall n > N : left|frac{q^n}{n} - 0right| < epsilon }
$$



Consider the following:



$$
left|frac{q^n}{n}right| < epsilon iff frac{|q|^n}{n} < epsilon
$$



Redefine $|q|^n$:
$$
|q|^n = frac{1}{(1+t)^n} lefrac{1}{(1+nt)}
$$

Thus:
$$
frac{|q|^n}{n} < frac{1}{n(1+nt)} < frac{1}{n^2t} < frac{1}{n} < epsilon
$$



So from this we may find $N$ such that:



$$
frac{1}{n} < frac{1}{N} < epsilon
$$



Thus the limit is $0$.



Is it a correct proof?










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite













    Prove
    $$
    lim_{n to infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0
    $$
    for $|q| < 1$ using $epsilon$ definition.




    Using the definition of a limit:



    $$
    lim_{nto infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0 stackrel{text{def}}{iff} { forallepsilon>0 ,exists Ninmathbb N, forall n > N : left|frac{q^n}{n} - 0right| < epsilon }
    $$



    Consider the following:



    $$
    left|frac{q^n}{n}right| < epsilon iff frac{|q|^n}{n} < epsilon
    $$



    Redefine $|q|^n$:
    $$
    |q|^n = frac{1}{(1+t)^n} lefrac{1}{(1+nt)}
    $$

    Thus:
    $$
    frac{|q|^n}{n} < frac{1}{n(1+nt)} < frac{1}{n^2t} < frac{1}{n} < epsilon
    $$



    So from this we may find $N$ such that:



    $$
    frac{1}{n} < frac{1}{N} < epsilon
    $$



    Thus the limit is $0$.



    Is it a correct proof?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite












      Prove
      $$
      lim_{n to infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0
      $$
      for $|q| < 1$ using $epsilon$ definition.




      Using the definition of a limit:



      $$
      lim_{nto infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0 stackrel{text{def}}{iff} { forallepsilon>0 ,exists Ninmathbb N, forall n > N : left|frac{q^n}{n} - 0right| < epsilon }
      $$



      Consider the following:



      $$
      left|frac{q^n}{n}right| < epsilon iff frac{|q|^n}{n} < epsilon
      $$



      Redefine $|q|^n$:
      $$
      |q|^n = frac{1}{(1+t)^n} lefrac{1}{(1+nt)}
      $$

      Thus:
      $$
      frac{|q|^n}{n} < frac{1}{n(1+nt)} < frac{1}{n^2t} < frac{1}{n} < epsilon
      $$



      So from this we may find $N$ such that:



      $$
      frac{1}{n} < frac{1}{N} < epsilon
      $$



      Thus the limit is $0$.



      Is it a correct proof?










      share|cite|improve this question
















      Prove
      $$
      lim_{n to infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0
      $$
      for $|q| < 1$ using $epsilon$ definition.




      Using the definition of a limit:



      $$
      lim_{nto infty}frac{q^n}{n} = 0 stackrel{text{def}}{iff} { forallepsilon>0 ,exists Ninmathbb N, forall n > N : left|frac{q^n}{n} - 0right| < epsilon }
      $$



      Consider the following:



      $$
      left|frac{q^n}{n}right| < epsilon iff frac{|q|^n}{n} < epsilon
      $$



      Redefine $|q|^n$:
      $$
      |q|^n = frac{1}{(1+t)^n} lefrac{1}{(1+nt)}
      $$

      Thus:
      $$
      frac{|q|^n}{n} < frac{1}{n(1+nt)} < frac{1}{n^2t} < frac{1}{n} < epsilon
      $$



      So from this we may find $N$ such that:



      $$
      frac{1}{n} < frac{1}{N} < epsilon
      $$



      Thus the limit is $0$.



      Is it a correct proof?







      calculus limits proof-verification limits-without-lhopital epsilon-delta






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      edited Nov 21 at 16:51

























      asked Nov 21 at 16:28









      roman

      9701815




      9701815






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Your proof is almost correct, but there is a small problem concerning the inequality $dfrac1{n^2t}<dfrac1n$. This is equivalent to $nt>1$. Why would that be true? All you know about $t$ is that $t>0$. So, you should deal with the inequality $dfrac1{nt}<varepsilon$. That is, choose $N$ such that $dfrac1{Nt}<varepsilon$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • That's a nice catch, thank you!
            – roman
            Nov 21 at 16:50










          • I'm glad I could help.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Nov 21 at 16:52


















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Yes, your proof is fine. You should mention, that the inequality $frac{1}{n^2t }<frac{1}{n}$ does not hold for all $n $, but for almost all $n $.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            You have::



            $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} < dfrac{1}{n^2t}< dfrac{1}{nt},$ $t>0$.



            Let $epsilon$ be given.



            Archimedean principle:



            There is a $N$, positive interger, s.t.



            $N >dfrac{1}{t epsilon}$.



            For $n ge N$:



            $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} <dfrac{1}{nt} le dfrac{1}{Nt} <epsilon$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted










              Your proof is almost correct, but there is a small problem concerning the inequality $dfrac1{n^2t}<dfrac1n$. This is equivalent to $nt>1$. Why would that be true? All you know about $t$ is that $t>0$. So, you should deal with the inequality $dfrac1{nt}<varepsilon$. That is, choose $N$ such that $dfrac1{Nt}<varepsilon$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • That's a nice catch, thank you!
                – roman
                Nov 21 at 16:50










              • I'm glad I could help.
                – José Carlos Santos
                Nov 21 at 16:52















              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted










              Your proof is almost correct, but there is a small problem concerning the inequality $dfrac1{n^2t}<dfrac1n$. This is equivalent to $nt>1$. Why would that be true? All you know about $t$ is that $t>0$. So, you should deal with the inequality $dfrac1{nt}<varepsilon$. That is, choose $N$ such that $dfrac1{Nt}<varepsilon$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • That's a nice catch, thank you!
                – roman
                Nov 21 at 16:50










              • I'm glad I could help.
                – José Carlos Santos
                Nov 21 at 16:52













              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              3
              down vote



              accepted






              Your proof is almost correct, but there is a small problem concerning the inequality $dfrac1{n^2t}<dfrac1n$. This is equivalent to $nt>1$. Why would that be true? All you know about $t$ is that $t>0$. So, you should deal with the inequality $dfrac1{nt}<varepsilon$. That is, choose $N$ such that $dfrac1{Nt}<varepsilon$.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Your proof is almost correct, but there is a small problem concerning the inequality $dfrac1{n^2t}<dfrac1n$. This is equivalent to $nt>1$. Why would that be true? All you know about $t$ is that $t>0$. So, you should deal with the inequality $dfrac1{nt}<varepsilon$. That is, choose $N$ such that $dfrac1{Nt}<varepsilon$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 21 at 16:33









              José Carlos Santos

              142k20111207




              142k20111207












              • That's a nice catch, thank you!
                – roman
                Nov 21 at 16:50










              • I'm glad I could help.
                – José Carlos Santos
                Nov 21 at 16:52


















              • That's a nice catch, thank you!
                – roman
                Nov 21 at 16:50










              • I'm glad I could help.
                – José Carlos Santos
                Nov 21 at 16:52
















              That's a nice catch, thank you!
              – roman
              Nov 21 at 16:50




              That's a nice catch, thank you!
              – roman
              Nov 21 at 16:50












              I'm glad I could help.
              – José Carlos Santos
              Nov 21 at 16:52




              I'm glad I could help.
              – José Carlos Santos
              Nov 21 at 16:52










              up vote
              1
              down vote













              Yes, your proof is fine. You should mention, that the inequality $frac{1}{n^2t }<frac{1}{n}$ does not hold for all $n $, but for almost all $n $.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                Yes, your proof is fine. You should mention, that the inequality $frac{1}{n^2t }<frac{1}{n}$ does not hold for all $n $, but for almost all $n $.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  Yes, your proof is fine. You should mention, that the inequality $frac{1}{n^2t }<frac{1}{n}$ does not hold for all $n $, but for almost all $n $.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Yes, your proof is fine. You should mention, that the inequality $frac{1}{n^2t }<frac{1}{n}$ does not hold for all $n $, but for almost all $n $.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 21 at 16:39









                  Fred

                  42.6k1642




                  42.6k1642






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      You have::



                      $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} < dfrac{1}{n^2t}< dfrac{1}{nt},$ $t>0$.



                      Let $epsilon$ be given.



                      Archimedean principle:



                      There is a $N$, positive interger, s.t.



                      $N >dfrac{1}{t epsilon}$.



                      For $n ge N$:



                      $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} <dfrac{1}{nt} le dfrac{1}{Nt} <epsilon$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        You have::



                        $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} < dfrac{1}{n^2t}< dfrac{1}{nt},$ $t>0$.



                        Let $epsilon$ be given.



                        Archimedean principle:



                        There is a $N$, positive interger, s.t.



                        $N >dfrac{1}{t epsilon}$.



                        For $n ge N$:



                        $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} <dfrac{1}{nt} le dfrac{1}{Nt} <epsilon$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          You have::



                          $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} < dfrac{1}{n^2t}< dfrac{1}{nt},$ $t>0$.



                          Let $epsilon$ be given.



                          Archimedean principle:



                          There is a $N$, positive interger, s.t.



                          $N >dfrac{1}{t epsilon}$.



                          For $n ge N$:



                          $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} <dfrac{1}{nt} le dfrac{1}{Nt} <epsilon$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          You have::



                          $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} < dfrac{1}{n^2t}< dfrac{1}{nt},$ $t>0$.



                          Let $epsilon$ be given.



                          Archimedean principle:



                          There is a $N$, positive interger, s.t.



                          $N >dfrac{1}{t epsilon}$.



                          For $n ge N$:



                          $dfrac{|q|^n}{n} <dfrac{1}{nt} le dfrac{1}{Nt} <epsilon$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 21 at 16:56









                          Peter Szilas

                          10.2k2720




                          10.2k2720






























                               

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