Uniform continuity on an open interval?












1












$begingroup$


Suppose I want to check if $f(x)$ is uniform continuous on a bounded interval $I$ (for eg open interval $(0,1)$), given that it is continuous on $I$. How do I do that?



My approach: Take $bar{I}$, then two case can happen:



Case I: If I can continuously extend the function, then $f(x)$ is uniformly continuous on $I$.



Case II: If I cannot extend the function continuously, then two sub cases are possible



Subcase II a: $f(x)$ is tends to an infinite limit i.e. it shoots up/down arbitrarily for eg functions like $frac{1}{x}$. In which case I conclude that $f$ is not uniformly continuous on $I$.



Subcase II b: $f(x)$ doesn't have a limit i.e. function of the type sin$frac{1}{x}$. In this case as well $f(x)$ is not uniform continuous on $I$.



So is my above classification of continuous function sufficient to determine which functions are uniform continuous and which are not? So far it had worked well for me.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A function continuous function $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ can be extended to a continuous function $tilde f$ on $[0,1]$ if and only if $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – UserS
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    @UserS I was looking for a statement like that. Can you give me a specific source for that theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16
















1












$begingroup$


Suppose I want to check if $f(x)$ is uniform continuous on a bounded interval $I$ (for eg open interval $(0,1)$), given that it is continuous on $I$. How do I do that?



My approach: Take $bar{I}$, then two case can happen:



Case I: If I can continuously extend the function, then $f(x)$ is uniformly continuous on $I$.



Case II: If I cannot extend the function continuously, then two sub cases are possible



Subcase II a: $f(x)$ is tends to an infinite limit i.e. it shoots up/down arbitrarily for eg functions like $frac{1}{x}$. In which case I conclude that $f$ is not uniformly continuous on $I$.



Subcase II b: $f(x)$ doesn't have a limit i.e. function of the type sin$frac{1}{x}$. In this case as well $f(x)$ is not uniform continuous on $I$.



So is my above classification of continuous function sufficient to determine which functions are uniform continuous and which are not? So far it had worked well for me.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A function continuous function $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ can be extended to a continuous function $tilde f$ on $[0,1]$ if and only if $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – UserS
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    @UserS I was looking for a statement like that. Can you give me a specific source for that theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Suppose I want to check if $f(x)$ is uniform continuous on a bounded interval $I$ (for eg open interval $(0,1)$), given that it is continuous on $I$. How do I do that?



My approach: Take $bar{I}$, then two case can happen:



Case I: If I can continuously extend the function, then $f(x)$ is uniformly continuous on $I$.



Case II: If I cannot extend the function continuously, then two sub cases are possible



Subcase II a: $f(x)$ is tends to an infinite limit i.e. it shoots up/down arbitrarily for eg functions like $frac{1}{x}$. In which case I conclude that $f$ is not uniformly continuous on $I$.



Subcase II b: $f(x)$ doesn't have a limit i.e. function of the type sin$frac{1}{x}$. In this case as well $f(x)$ is not uniform continuous on $I$.



So is my above classification of continuous function sufficient to determine which functions are uniform continuous and which are not? So far it had worked well for me.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose I want to check if $f(x)$ is uniform continuous on a bounded interval $I$ (for eg open interval $(0,1)$), given that it is continuous on $I$. How do I do that?



My approach: Take $bar{I}$, then two case can happen:



Case I: If I can continuously extend the function, then $f(x)$ is uniformly continuous on $I$.



Case II: If I cannot extend the function continuously, then two sub cases are possible



Subcase II a: $f(x)$ is tends to an infinite limit i.e. it shoots up/down arbitrarily for eg functions like $frac{1}{x}$. In which case I conclude that $f$ is not uniformly continuous on $I$.



Subcase II b: $f(x)$ doesn't have a limit i.e. function of the type sin$frac{1}{x}$. In this case as well $f(x)$ is not uniform continuous on $I$.



So is my above classification of continuous function sufficient to determine which functions are uniform continuous and which are not? So far it had worked well for me.







uniform-continuity






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Dec 6 '18 at 12:19









José Carlos Santos

154k22124227




154k22124227










asked Dec 6 '18 at 12:05









henceprovedhenceproved

1358




1358








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A function continuous function $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ can be extended to a continuous function $tilde f$ on $[0,1]$ if and only if $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – UserS
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    @UserS I was looking for a statement like that. Can you give me a specific source for that theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A function continuous function $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ can be extended to a continuous function $tilde f$ on $[0,1]$ if and only if $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – UserS
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:14










  • $begingroup$
    @UserS I was looking for a statement like that. Can you give me a specific source for that theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – henceproved
    Dec 6 '18 at 12:16








1




1




$begingroup$
A function continuous function $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ can be extended to a continuous function $tilde f$ on $[0,1]$ if and only if $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.
$endgroup$
– UserS
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14




$begingroup$
A function continuous function $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ can be extended to a continuous function $tilde f$ on $[0,1]$ if and only if $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.
$endgroup$
– UserS
Dec 6 '18 at 12:14












$begingroup$
@UserS I was looking for a statement like that. Can you give me a specific source for that theorem?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16




$begingroup$
@UserS I was looking for a statement like that. Can you give me a specific source for that theorem?
$endgroup$
– henceproved
Dec 6 '18 at 12:16










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Yes, that is correct. In fact, assuming that the domain of $f$ is $(a,b)$:




  1. If both limits $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ and $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ exist, then $f$ is uniformly continuous, because you can define$$begin{array}{rccc}Fcolon&[a,b]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&begin{cases}lim_{xto a^+}f(x)&text{ if }x=a\f(x)&text{ if }xin(a,b)\lim_{xto b^-}f(x)&text{ if }x=b.end{cases}end{array}$$Then $F$ is continuous and, since its domain is a closed and bounded interval, $F$ is unifomly continuous. In particular, $f$ is uniformly continuous.

  2. If the limit $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ doesn't exist, then $f$ cannot be uniformly continuous because then either $lim_{xto a^+}bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert=+infty$ or there will two real numbers $m$ and $M$, with $m<M$, such that the inequalities $f(x)>M$ and $f(x)<m$ will occur for values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $a$. It is easy to prove that each possibility is incompatible with the fact that $f$ is uniformly continuous.

  3. The case in which the limit $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ doesn't exist is similar.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Let $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ be uniformly continuous and consider a sequence ${x_n}$ converging to $0$ , so that ${x_n}$ is cauchy. Now a uniformly continuous function sends Cauchy sequence to Cauchy sequence i.e. ${f(x_n)}$ is also cauchy , hence ${f(x_n)}$ converges to some limit $lin Bbb R$. Again using uniform continuity you can show this limit is independent of choice of sequence converging to $0$ i.e. both $x_n,y_n$ converges to $0$ implies that $|x_n-y_n|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$, so by uniform continuity $|f(x_n)-f(y_n)|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$ and since both ${f(x_n)},{f(y_n)}$ are convergent ,the converges same limit. So that we can extend $f$ by defining $f(0)=l$. In a similar manner one can assign a value for $f$ on the point $1$. This gives a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1]$.



    For the converse , let $tilde f$ be a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1$, then $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous as $[0,1]$ is compact , hence $f$ , being a restriction of $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.



    More general statement---
    Let $D$ be a dense subset of $[0,1]$ and $f:Drightarrow Bbb R$ is uniformly continuous then $f$ can be extended to whole $[0,1]$ continuously.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I added these facts as the user henceproved asked for a source.
      $endgroup$
      – UserS
      Dec 6 '18 at 13:07











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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1












    $begingroup$

    Yes, that is correct. In fact, assuming that the domain of $f$ is $(a,b)$:




    1. If both limits $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ and $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ exist, then $f$ is uniformly continuous, because you can define$$begin{array}{rccc}Fcolon&[a,b]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&begin{cases}lim_{xto a^+}f(x)&text{ if }x=a\f(x)&text{ if }xin(a,b)\lim_{xto b^-}f(x)&text{ if }x=b.end{cases}end{array}$$Then $F$ is continuous and, since its domain is a closed and bounded interval, $F$ is unifomly continuous. In particular, $f$ is uniformly continuous.

    2. If the limit $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ doesn't exist, then $f$ cannot be uniformly continuous because then either $lim_{xto a^+}bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert=+infty$ or there will two real numbers $m$ and $M$, with $m<M$, such that the inequalities $f(x)>M$ and $f(x)<m$ will occur for values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $a$. It is easy to prove that each possibility is incompatible with the fact that $f$ is uniformly continuous.

    3. The case in which the limit $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ doesn't exist is similar.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Yes, that is correct. In fact, assuming that the domain of $f$ is $(a,b)$:




      1. If both limits $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ and $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ exist, then $f$ is uniformly continuous, because you can define$$begin{array}{rccc}Fcolon&[a,b]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&begin{cases}lim_{xto a^+}f(x)&text{ if }x=a\f(x)&text{ if }xin(a,b)\lim_{xto b^-}f(x)&text{ if }x=b.end{cases}end{array}$$Then $F$ is continuous and, since its domain is a closed and bounded interval, $F$ is unifomly continuous. In particular, $f$ is uniformly continuous.

      2. If the limit $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ doesn't exist, then $f$ cannot be uniformly continuous because then either $lim_{xto a^+}bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert=+infty$ or there will two real numbers $m$ and $M$, with $m<M$, such that the inequalities $f(x)>M$ and $f(x)<m$ will occur for values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $a$. It is easy to prove that each possibility is incompatible with the fact that $f$ is uniformly continuous.

      3. The case in which the limit $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ doesn't exist is similar.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Yes, that is correct. In fact, assuming that the domain of $f$ is $(a,b)$:




        1. If both limits $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ and $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ exist, then $f$ is uniformly continuous, because you can define$$begin{array}{rccc}Fcolon&[a,b]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&begin{cases}lim_{xto a^+}f(x)&text{ if }x=a\f(x)&text{ if }xin(a,b)\lim_{xto b^-}f(x)&text{ if }x=b.end{cases}end{array}$$Then $F$ is continuous and, since its domain is a closed and bounded interval, $F$ is unifomly continuous. In particular, $f$ is uniformly continuous.

        2. If the limit $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ doesn't exist, then $f$ cannot be uniformly continuous because then either $lim_{xto a^+}bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert=+infty$ or there will two real numbers $m$ and $M$, with $m<M$, such that the inequalities $f(x)>M$ and $f(x)<m$ will occur for values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $a$. It is easy to prove that each possibility is incompatible with the fact that $f$ is uniformly continuous.

        3. The case in which the limit $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ doesn't exist is similar.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Yes, that is correct. In fact, assuming that the domain of $f$ is $(a,b)$:




        1. If both limits $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ and $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ exist, then $f$ is uniformly continuous, because you can define$$begin{array}{rccc}Fcolon&[a,b]&longrightarrow&mathbb R\&x&mapsto&begin{cases}lim_{xto a^+}f(x)&text{ if }x=a\f(x)&text{ if }xin(a,b)\lim_{xto b^-}f(x)&text{ if }x=b.end{cases}end{array}$$Then $F$ is continuous and, since its domain is a closed and bounded interval, $F$ is unifomly continuous. In particular, $f$ is uniformly continuous.

        2. If the limit $lim_{xto a^+}f(x)$ doesn't exist, then $f$ cannot be uniformly continuous because then either $lim_{xto a^+}bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert=+infty$ or there will two real numbers $m$ and $M$, with $m<M$, such that the inequalities $f(x)>M$ and $f(x)<m$ will occur for values of $x$ arbitrarily close to $a$. It is easy to prove that each possibility is incompatible with the fact that $f$ is uniformly continuous.

        3. The case in which the limit $lim_{xto b^-}f(x)$ doesn't exist is similar.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 6 '18 at 12:17









        José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

        154k22124227




        154k22124227























            0












            $begingroup$

            Let $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ be uniformly continuous and consider a sequence ${x_n}$ converging to $0$ , so that ${x_n}$ is cauchy. Now a uniformly continuous function sends Cauchy sequence to Cauchy sequence i.e. ${f(x_n)}$ is also cauchy , hence ${f(x_n)}$ converges to some limit $lin Bbb R$. Again using uniform continuity you can show this limit is independent of choice of sequence converging to $0$ i.e. both $x_n,y_n$ converges to $0$ implies that $|x_n-y_n|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$, so by uniform continuity $|f(x_n)-f(y_n)|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$ and since both ${f(x_n)},{f(y_n)}$ are convergent ,the converges same limit. So that we can extend $f$ by defining $f(0)=l$. In a similar manner one can assign a value for $f$ on the point $1$. This gives a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1]$.



            For the converse , let $tilde f$ be a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1$, then $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous as $[0,1]$ is compact , hence $f$ , being a restriction of $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.



            More general statement---
            Let $D$ be a dense subset of $[0,1]$ and $f:Drightarrow Bbb R$ is uniformly continuous then $f$ can be extended to whole $[0,1]$ continuously.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I added these facts as the user henceproved asked for a source.
              $endgroup$
              – UserS
              Dec 6 '18 at 13:07
















            0












            $begingroup$

            Let $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ be uniformly continuous and consider a sequence ${x_n}$ converging to $0$ , so that ${x_n}$ is cauchy. Now a uniformly continuous function sends Cauchy sequence to Cauchy sequence i.e. ${f(x_n)}$ is also cauchy , hence ${f(x_n)}$ converges to some limit $lin Bbb R$. Again using uniform continuity you can show this limit is independent of choice of sequence converging to $0$ i.e. both $x_n,y_n$ converges to $0$ implies that $|x_n-y_n|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$, so by uniform continuity $|f(x_n)-f(y_n)|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$ and since both ${f(x_n)},{f(y_n)}$ are convergent ,the converges same limit. So that we can extend $f$ by defining $f(0)=l$. In a similar manner one can assign a value for $f$ on the point $1$. This gives a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1]$.



            For the converse , let $tilde f$ be a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1$, then $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous as $[0,1]$ is compact , hence $f$ , being a restriction of $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.



            More general statement---
            Let $D$ be a dense subset of $[0,1]$ and $f:Drightarrow Bbb R$ is uniformly continuous then $f$ can be extended to whole $[0,1]$ continuously.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I added these facts as the user henceproved asked for a source.
              $endgroup$
              – UserS
              Dec 6 '18 at 13:07














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            Let $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ be uniformly continuous and consider a sequence ${x_n}$ converging to $0$ , so that ${x_n}$ is cauchy. Now a uniformly continuous function sends Cauchy sequence to Cauchy sequence i.e. ${f(x_n)}$ is also cauchy , hence ${f(x_n)}$ converges to some limit $lin Bbb R$. Again using uniform continuity you can show this limit is independent of choice of sequence converging to $0$ i.e. both $x_n,y_n$ converges to $0$ implies that $|x_n-y_n|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$, so by uniform continuity $|f(x_n)-f(y_n)|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$ and since both ${f(x_n)},{f(y_n)}$ are convergent ,the converges same limit. So that we can extend $f$ by defining $f(0)=l$. In a similar manner one can assign a value for $f$ on the point $1$. This gives a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1]$.



            For the converse , let $tilde f$ be a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1$, then $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous as $[0,1]$ is compact , hence $f$ , being a restriction of $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.



            More general statement---
            Let $D$ be a dense subset of $[0,1]$ and $f:Drightarrow Bbb R$ is uniformly continuous then $f$ can be extended to whole $[0,1]$ continuously.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            Let $f:(0,1)rightarrow Bbb R$ be uniformly continuous and consider a sequence ${x_n}$ converging to $0$ , so that ${x_n}$ is cauchy. Now a uniformly continuous function sends Cauchy sequence to Cauchy sequence i.e. ${f(x_n)}$ is also cauchy , hence ${f(x_n)}$ converges to some limit $lin Bbb R$. Again using uniform continuity you can show this limit is independent of choice of sequence converging to $0$ i.e. both $x_n,y_n$ converges to $0$ implies that $|x_n-y_n|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$, so by uniform continuity $|f(x_n)-f(y_n)|$ can be made arbitrarily small for large $n$ and since both ${f(x_n)},{f(y_n)}$ are convergent ,the converges same limit. So that we can extend $f$ by defining $f(0)=l$. In a similar manner one can assign a value for $f$ on the point $1$. This gives a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1]$.



            For the converse , let $tilde f$ be a continuous extension of $f$ on $[0,1$, then $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous as $[0,1]$ is compact , hence $f$ , being a restriction of $tilde f$ is uniformly continuous on $(0,1)$.



            More general statement---
            Let $D$ be a dense subset of $[0,1]$ and $f:Drightarrow Bbb R$ is uniformly continuous then $f$ can be extended to whole $[0,1]$ continuously.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 6 '18 at 12:36

























            answered Dec 6 '18 at 12:30









            UserSUserS

            1,5391112




            1,5391112












            • $begingroup$
              I added these facts as the user henceproved asked for a source.
              $endgroup$
              – UserS
              Dec 6 '18 at 13:07


















            • $begingroup$
              I added these facts as the user henceproved asked for a source.
              $endgroup$
              – UserS
              Dec 6 '18 at 13:07
















            $begingroup$
            I added these facts as the user henceproved asked for a source.
            $endgroup$
            – UserS
            Dec 6 '18 at 13:07




            $begingroup$
            I added these facts as the user henceproved asked for a source.
            $endgroup$
            – UserS
            Dec 6 '18 at 13:07


















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