Doubt in passing in the Riemann mapping theorem












1














enter image description here



I have a question, maybe silly in the passage marked in red. I understood everything up to this part. Why does $H'(0) > 0$ imply $e^{i theta} = 1$? Is the Schwarz Lemma being used?










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  • The derivative of $H(z)$ is the constant function $e^{itheta}$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 29 at 5:24










  • @LordSharktheUnknown if I understood correctly, just note that $|H'(z)| = 1$, but $H$ has positive derivative in $0$ because $F$ and $G$ have positive derivatives in zero. Then $e^{i theta}=H'(0) = |H'(0)| = 1$.
    – Ricardo Freire
    Nov 29 at 5:37
















1














enter image description here



I have a question, maybe silly in the passage marked in red. I understood everything up to this part. Why does $H'(0) > 0$ imply $e^{i theta} = 1$? Is the Schwarz Lemma being used?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • The derivative of $H(z)$ is the constant function $e^{itheta}$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 29 at 5:24










  • @LordSharktheUnknown if I understood correctly, just note that $|H'(z)| = 1$, but $H$ has positive derivative in $0$ because $F$ and $G$ have positive derivatives in zero. Then $e^{i theta}=H'(0) = |H'(0)| = 1$.
    – Ricardo Freire
    Nov 29 at 5:37














1












1








1







enter image description here



I have a question, maybe silly in the passage marked in red. I understood everything up to this part. Why does $H'(0) > 0$ imply $e^{i theta} = 1$? Is the Schwarz Lemma being used?










share|cite|improve this question













enter image description here



I have a question, maybe silly in the passage marked in red. I understood everything up to this part. Why does $H'(0) > 0$ imply $e^{i theta} = 1$? Is the Schwarz Lemma being used?







complex-analysis






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asked Nov 29 at 5:22









Ricardo Freire

392110




392110












  • The derivative of $H(z)$ is the constant function $e^{itheta}$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 29 at 5:24










  • @LordSharktheUnknown if I understood correctly, just note that $|H'(z)| = 1$, but $H$ has positive derivative in $0$ because $F$ and $G$ have positive derivatives in zero. Then $e^{i theta}=H'(0) = |H'(0)| = 1$.
    – Ricardo Freire
    Nov 29 at 5:37


















  • The derivative of $H(z)$ is the constant function $e^{itheta}$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Nov 29 at 5:24










  • @LordSharktheUnknown if I understood correctly, just note that $|H'(z)| = 1$, but $H$ has positive derivative in $0$ because $F$ and $G$ have positive derivatives in zero. Then $e^{i theta}=H'(0) = |H'(0)| = 1$.
    – Ricardo Freire
    Nov 29 at 5:37
















The derivative of $H(z)$ is the constant function $e^{itheta}$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 29 at 5:24




The derivative of $H(z)$ is the constant function $e^{itheta}$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Nov 29 at 5:24












@LordSharktheUnknown if I understood correctly, just note that $|H'(z)| = 1$, but $H$ has positive derivative in $0$ because $F$ and $G$ have positive derivatives in zero. Then $e^{i theta}=H'(0) = |H'(0)| = 1$.
– Ricardo Freire
Nov 29 at 5:37




@LordSharktheUnknown if I understood correctly, just note that $|H'(z)| = 1$, but $H$ has positive derivative in $0$ because $F$ and $G$ have positive derivatives in zero. Then $e^{i theta}=H'(0) = |H'(0)| = 1$.
– Ricardo Freire
Nov 29 at 5:37










1 Answer
1






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From $H=F circ G^{-1}$ we get with the chain rule and the rule for the derivative of $G^{-1}$ that



$$ H'(0)= frac{F'(z_0)}{G'(z_0)}.$$



Since $F'(z_0), G'(z_0)>0$, it follows that $H'(0)>0$.



From $H(z)=e^{i theta}z$, we get $H'(0)=e^{i theta}.$



Furthermore we have: $e^{i theta}>0 iff e^{i theta}=1.$






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    1 Answer
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    active

    oldest

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    1 Answer
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    active

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    1














    From $H=F circ G^{-1}$ we get with the chain rule and the rule for the derivative of $G^{-1}$ that



    $$ H'(0)= frac{F'(z_0)}{G'(z_0)}.$$



    Since $F'(z_0), G'(z_0)>0$, it follows that $H'(0)>0$.



    From $H(z)=e^{i theta}z$, we get $H'(0)=e^{i theta}.$



    Furthermore we have: $e^{i theta}>0 iff e^{i theta}=1.$






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      1














      From $H=F circ G^{-1}$ we get with the chain rule and the rule for the derivative of $G^{-1}$ that



      $$ H'(0)= frac{F'(z_0)}{G'(z_0)}.$$



      Since $F'(z_0), G'(z_0)>0$, it follows that $H'(0)>0$.



      From $H(z)=e^{i theta}z$, we get $H'(0)=e^{i theta}.$



      Furthermore we have: $e^{i theta}>0 iff e^{i theta}=1.$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        1












        1








        1






        From $H=F circ G^{-1}$ we get with the chain rule and the rule for the derivative of $G^{-1}$ that



        $$ H'(0)= frac{F'(z_0)}{G'(z_0)}.$$



        Since $F'(z_0), G'(z_0)>0$, it follows that $H'(0)>0$.



        From $H(z)=e^{i theta}z$, we get $H'(0)=e^{i theta}.$



        Furthermore we have: $e^{i theta}>0 iff e^{i theta}=1.$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        From $H=F circ G^{-1}$ we get with the chain rule and the rule for the derivative of $G^{-1}$ that



        $$ H'(0)= frac{F'(z_0)}{G'(z_0)}.$$



        Since $F'(z_0), G'(z_0)>0$, it follows that $H'(0)>0$.



        From $H(z)=e^{i theta}z$, we get $H'(0)=e^{i theta}.$



        Furthermore we have: $e^{i theta}>0 iff e^{i theta}=1.$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 29 at 5:53









        Fred

        44.2k1645




        44.2k1645






























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