I need an opinion and maybe a clarification about my work on the following problem:












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Problem: Suppose that $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ are positive integers and $a_1,a_2,...,a_t$ are integers.



What condition on $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ is necessary to guarantee that there is an integer x such that $x ≡ a_i $ mod $m_i$ for all intergers i in the range $1leq ileq r $.



My idea:
I will choose for presentation x=1, $a_1=14$ and $m_1=13$.



Now let k be any positive integer. So that $a_n=a_1+k*(n-1)$ where n>0.
Similarly let $m_n=m_1+k*(n-1)$.



Now for any n, 1 ≡ $a_n $ mod $m_n$.



The solution is that $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ is pairwise coprime.



In my presentation if I have k=2 then my m's will not be pairwise coprime.



Could you please explain why the answer is pairwise coprime and why will my idea not work.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Problem: Suppose that $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ are positive integers and $a_1,a_2,...,a_t$ are integers.



    What condition on $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ is necessary to guarantee that there is an integer x such that $x ≡ a_i $ mod $m_i$ for all intergers i in the range $1leq ileq r $.



    My idea:
    I will choose for presentation x=1, $a_1=14$ and $m_1=13$.



    Now let k be any positive integer. So that $a_n=a_1+k*(n-1)$ where n>0.
    Similarly let $m_n=m_1+k*(n-1)$.



    Now for any n, 1 ≡ $a_n $ mod $m_n$.



    The solution is that $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ is pairwise coprime.



    In my presentation if I have k=2 then my m's will not be pairwise coprime.



    Could you please explain why the answer is pairwise coprime and why will my idea not work.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Problem: Suppose that $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ are positive integers and $a_1,a_2,...,a_t$ are integers.



      What condition on $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ is necessary to guarantee that there is an integer x such that $x ≡ a_i $ mod $m_i$ for all intergers i in the range $1leq ileq r $.



      My idea:
      I will choose for presentation x=1, $a_1=14$ and $m_1=13$.



      Now let k be any positive integer. So that $a_n=a_1+k*(n-1)$ where n>0.
      Similarly let $m_n=m_1+k*(n-1)$.



      Now for any n, 1 ≡ $a_n $ mod $m_n$.



      The solution is that $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ is pairwise coprime.



      In my presentation if I have k=2 then my m's will not be pairwise coprime.



      Could you please explain why the answer is pairwise coprime and why will my idea not work.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Problem: Suppose that $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ are positive integers and $a_1,a_2,...,a_t$ are integers.



      What condition on $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ is necessary to guarantee that there is an integer x such that $x ≡ a_i $ mod $m_i$ for all intergers i in the range $1leq ileq r $.



      My idea:
      I will choose for presentation x=1, $a_1=14$ and $m_1=13$.



      Now let k be any positive integer. So that $a_n=a_1+k*(n-1)$ where n>0.
      Similarly let $m_n=m_1+k*(n-1)$.



      Now for any n, 1 ≡ $a_n $ mod $m_n$.



      The solution is that $m_1,m_2,...,m_t$ is pairwise coprime.



      In my presentation if I have k=2 then my m's will not be pairwise coprime.



      Could you please explain why the answer is pairwise coprime and why will my idea not work.







      greatest-common-divisor






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      edited Dec 27 '18 at 19:46







      Val

















      asked Dec 27 '18 at 19:41









      ValVal

      537




      537






















          1 Answer
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          Normally you are given the $a$'s and $m$'s and asked to find $x$. If the $m$'s are pairwise coprime, the Chinese Remainder Theorem guarantees a solution. If they are not, there may not be a solution. As an example, take $m_1=4, m_2=6$, which have common factor $2$. Then if $a_1=1,a_2=2$ there is no solution because the first forces $x$ to be odd and the second forces $x$ to be even.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You said "the first forces x to be even and the second forces x to be odd" is it not the other way around?
            $endgroup$
            – Val
            Dec 28 '18 at 12:15










          • $begingroup$
            @BurLeXyOOnuTz: Yes, a brain glitch. Fixed. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Ross Millikan
            Dec 28 '18 at 14:07











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          $begingroup$

          Normally you are given the $a$'s and $m$'s and asked to find $x$. If the $m$'s are pairwise coprime, the Chinese Remainder Theorem guarantees a solution. If they are not, there may not be a solution. As an example, take $m_1=4, m_2=6$, which have common factor $2$. Then if $a_1=1,a_2=2$ there is no solution because the first forces $x$ to be odd and the second forces $x$ to be even.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You said "the first forces x to be even and the second forces x to be odd" is it not the other way around?
            $endgroup$
            – Val
            Dec 28 '18 at 12:15










          • $begingroup$
            @BurLeXyOOnuTz: Yes, a brain glitch. Fixed. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Ross Millikan
            Dec 28 '18 at 14:07
















          1












          $begingroup$

          Normally you are given the $a$'s and $m$'s and asked to find $x$. If the $m$'s are pairwise coprime, the Chinese Remainder Theorem guarantees a solution. If they are not, there may not be a solution. As an example, take $m_1=4, m_2=6$, which have common factor $2$. Then if $a_1=1,a_2=2$ there is no solution because the first forces $x$ to be odd and the second forces $x$ to be even.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You said "the first forces x to be even and the second forces x to be odd" is it not the other way around?
            $endgroup$
            – Val
            Dec 28 '18 at 12:15










          • $begingroup$
            @BurLeXyOOnuTz: Yes, a brain glitch. Fixed. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Ross Millikan
            Dec 28 '18 at 14:07














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Normally you are given the $a$'s and $m$'s and asked to find $x$. If the $m$'s are pairwise coprime, the Chinese Remainder Theorem guarantees a solution. If they are not, there may not be a solution. As an example, take $m_1=4, m_2=6$, which have common factor $2$. Then if $a_1=1,a_2=2$ there is no solution because the first forces $x$ to be odd and the second forces $x$ to be even.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Normally you are given the $a$'s and $m$'s and asked to find $x$. If the $m$'s are pairwise coprime, the Chinese Remainder Theorem guarantees a solution. If they are not, there may not be a solution. As an example, take $m_1=4, m_2=6$, which have common factor $2$. Then if $a_1=1,a_2=2$ there is no solution because the first forces $x$ to be odd and the second forces $x$ to be even.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 28 '18 at 14:07

























          answered Dec 27 '18 at 20:14









          Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

          299k24200374




          299k24200374












          • $begingroup$
            You said "the first forces x to be even and the second forces x to be odd" is it not the other way around?
            $endgroup$
            – Val
            Dec 28 '18 at 12:15










          • $begingroup$
            @BurLeXyOOnuTz: Yes, a brain glitch. Fixed. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Ross Millikan
            Dec 28 '18 at 14:07


















          • $begingroup$
            You said "the first forces x to be even and the second forces x to be odd" is it not the other way around?
            $endgroup$
            – Val
            Dec 28 '18 at 12:15










          • $begingroup$
            @BurLeXyOOnuTz: Yes, a brain glitch. Fixed. Thanks
            $endgroup$
            – Ross Millikan
            Dec 28 '18 at 14:07
















          $begingroup$
          You said "the first forces x to be even and the second forces x to be odd" is it not the other way around?
          $endgroup$
          – Val
          Dec 28 '18 at 12:15




          $begingroup$
          You said "the first forces x to be even and the second forces x to be odd" is it not the other way around?
          $endgroup$
          – Val
          Dec 28 '18 at 12:15












          $begingroup$
          @BurLeXyOOnuTz: Yes, a brain glitch. Fixed. Thanks
          $endgroup$
          – Ross Millikan
          Dec 28 '18 at 14:07




          $begingroup$
          @BurLeXyOOnuTz: Yes, a brain glitch. Fixed. Thanks
          $endgroup$
          – Ross Millikan
          Dec 28 '18 at 14:07


















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