Strong convexity












1












$begingroup$


I have to prove to things about strong convexity and I want to know if my demonstrations are corrects:



1: All of it in $R^n$.I have $f(x)$ strongly convex in $R^n$ and $g(x)=x-w$ with $w$ different from $0$. Then $f circ g$ is strongly convex.



2:I have $f(x)$ strongly convex in $R^n$ and $g(x)=Ax-w$ where $g(x)$ belong to $R^m$, the matrix $A$ is $ntimes m$ and different from $0$, and $w$ belongs to $R^n$.Then $fcirc g$ is strong convexity.



Prove:



1- I thought that when I do $f circ g$ what I´m doing is a translation, and geometric properties of $f$ will not change with it. So $f circ g$ is strongly convex like $f$.



2- I use the idea that $f circ g$ can be a rotation if I take $w=0$ and $A$ like the matrix rotation. So if I take $A$ like the matrix rotation that rotates $f$ through $180$ degrees I can said it would not be a convex function and then will not be strongly convex.



If some explanation is not so clear just tell me and I will try to solve it.



Thanks in advance for your help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I have to prove to things about strong convexity and I want to know if my demonstrations are corrects:



    1: All of it in $R^n$.I have $f(x)$ strongly convex in $R^n$ and $g(x)=x-w$ with $w$ different from $0$. Then $f circ g$ is strongly convex.



    2:I have $f(x)$ strongly convex in $R^n$ and $g(x)=Ax-w$ where $g(x)$ belong to $R^m$, the matrix $A$ is $ntimes m$ and different from $0$, and $w$ belongs to $R^n$.Then $fcirc g$ is strong convexity.



    Prove:



    1- I thought that when I do $f circ g$ what I´m doing is a translation, and geometric properties of $f$ will not change with it. So $f circ g$ is strongly convex like $f$.



    2- I use the idea that $f circ g$ can be a rotation if I take $w=0$ and $A$ like the matrix rotation. So if I take $A$ like the matrix rotation that rotates $f$ through $180$ degrees I can said it would not be a convex function and then will not be strongly convex.



    If some explanation is not so clear just tell me and I will try to solve it.



    Thanks in advance for your help.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I have to prove to things about strong convexity and I want to know if my demonstrations are corrects:



      1: All of it in $R^n$.I have $f(x)$ strongly convex in $R^n$ and $g(x)=x-w$ with $w$ different from $0$. Then $f circ g$ is strongly convex.



      2:I have $f(x)$ strongly convex in $R^n$ and $g(x)=Ax-w$ where $g(x)$ belong to $R^m$, the matrix $A$ is $ntimes m$ and different from $0$, and $w$ belongs to $R^n$.Then $fcirc g$ is strong convexity.



      Prove:



      1- I thought that when I do $f circ g$ what I´m doing is a translation, and geometric properties of $f$ will not change with it. So $f circ g$ is strongly convex like $f$.



      2- I use the idea that $f circ g$ can be a rotation if I take $w=0$ and $A$ like the matrix rotation. So if I take $A$ like the matrix rotation that rotates $f$ through $180$ degrees I can said it would not be a convex function and then will not be strongly convex.



      If some explanation is not so clear just tell me and I will try to solve it.



      Thanks in advance for your help.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I have to prove to things about strong convexity and I want to know if my demonstrations are corrects:



      1: All of it in $R^n$.I have $f(x)$ strongly convex in $R^n$ and $g(x)=x-w$ with $w$ different from $0$. Then $f circ g$ is strongly convex.



      2:I have $f(x)$ strongly convex in $R^n$ and $g(x)=Ax-w$ where $g(x)$ belong to $R^m$, the matrix $A$ is $ntimes m$ and different from $0$, and $w$ belongs to $R^n$.Then $fcirc g$ is strong convexity.



      Prove:



      1- I thought that when I do $f circ g$ what I´m doing is a translation, and geometric properties of $f$ will not change with it. So $f circ g$ is strongly convex like $f$.



      2- I use the idea that $f circ g$ can be a rotation if I take $w=0$ and $A$ like the matrix rotation. So if I take $A$ like the matrix rotation that rotates $f$ through $180$ degrees I can said it would not be a convex function and then will not be strongly convex.



      If some explanation is not so clear just tell me and I will try to solve it.



      Thanks in advance for your help.







      geometry convex-optimization






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      edited Dec 26 '18 at 10:40









      postmortes

      2,12531222




      2,12531222










      asked Dec 26 '18 at 10:20









      MeliodasMeliodas

      215




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          1 Answer
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          0












          $begingroup$

          Your argument for (2) is not correct. If $g$ is a rotation and $f$ (strongly) convex then $f circ g$ is (strongly) convex as well.



          Generally, $g(x) = Ax + w$ with $A in Bbb R^{ntimes m}$ and $w in Bbb R^n$ is an affine transformation from $ Bbb R^m$ to $ Bbb R^n$. In particular,
          $$
          g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y) = lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)
          $$

          for $x, y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$. Therefore, if $f : Bbb R^n to Bbb R$ is convex then
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          le lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          which shows that $f circ g$ is convex as well.



          If $f$ is strongly convex and $A$ has full column rank then $f circ g$ is strongly convex as well: $g$ is injective, so that $x ne y$ implies
          $g(x) ne g(y)$, and therefore
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          < lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          for $x ne y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I understand, thanks and I will try to follow all the steps of your prove. And about my first argument?
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:01










          • $begingroup$
            @Meliodas: Your conclusion in (1) is current, but I would not call "what I'm doing is a translation, and geometric properties of f will not change" a strict proof. Note also that (1) is a special case of (2).
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:25










          • $begingroup$
            thanks, yes is not a very strict prove. I wanted to prove it without the calcul but I understand is better if I do all the calculus work.
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:35











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

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          0












          $begingroup$

          Your argument for (2) is not correct. If $g$ is a rotation and $f$ (strongly) convex then $f circ g$ is (strongly) convex as well.



          Generally, $g(x) = Ax + w$ with $A in Bbb R^{ntimes m}$ and $w in Bbb R^n$ is an affine transformation from $ Bbb R^m$ to $ Bbb R^n$. In particular,
          $$
          g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y) = lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)
          $$

          for $x, y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$. Therefore, if $f : Bbb R^n to Bbb R$ is convex then
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          le lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          which shows that $f circ g$ is convex as well.



          If $f$ is strongly convex and $A$ has full column rank then $f circ g$ is strongly convex as well: $g$ is injective, so that $x ne y$ implies
          $g(x) ne g(y)$, and therefore
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          < lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          for $x ne y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I understand, thanks and I will try to follow all the steps of your prove. And about my first argument?
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:01










          • $begingroup$
            @Meliodas: Your conclusion in (1) is current, but I would not call "what I'm doing is a translation, and geometric properties of f will not change" a strict proof. Note also that (1) is a special case of (2).
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:25










          • $begingroup$
            thanks, yes is not a very strict prove. I wanted to prove it without the calcul but I understand is better if I do all the calculus work.
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:35
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Your argument for (2) is not correct. If $g$ is a rotation and $f$ (strongly) convex then $f circ g$ is (strongly) convex as well.



          Generally, $g(x) = Ax + w$ with $A in Bbb R^{ntimes m}$ and $w in Bbb R^n$ is an affine transformation from $ Bbb R^m$ to $ Bbb R^n$. In particular,
          $$
          g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y) = lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)
          $$

          for $x, y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$. Therefore, if $f : Bbb R^n to Bbb R$ is convex then
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          le lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          which shows that $f circ g$ is convex as well.



          If $f$ is strongly convex and $A$ has full column rank then $f circ g$ is strongly convex as well: $g$ is injective, so that $x ne y$ implies
          $g(x) ne g(y)$, and therefore
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          < lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          for $x ne y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I understand, thanks and I will try to follow all the steps of your prove. And about my first argument?
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:01










          • $begingroup$
            @Meliodas: Your conclusion in (1) is current, but I would not call "what I'm doing is a translation, and geometric properties of f will not change" a strict proof. Note also that (1) is a special case of (2).
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:25










          • $begingroup$
            thanks, yes is not a very strict prove. I wanted to prove it without the calcul but I understand is better if I do all the calculus work.
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:35














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Your argument for (2) is not correct. If $g$ is a rotation and $f$ (strongly) convex then $f circ g$ is (strongly) convex as well.



          Generally, $g(x) = Ax + w$ with $A in Bbb R^{ntimes m}$ and $w in Bbb R^n$ is an affine transformation from $ Bbb R^m$ to $ Bbb R^n$. In particular,
          $$
          g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y) = lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)
          $$

          for $x, y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$. Therefore, if $f : Bbb R^n to Bbb R$ is convex then
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          le lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          which shows that $f circ g$ is convex as well.



          If $f$ is strongly convex and $A$ has full column rank then $f circ g$ is strongly convex as well: $g$ is injective, so that $x ne y$ implies
          $g(x) ne g(y)$, and therefore
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          < lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          for $x ne y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Your argument for (2) is not correct. If $g$ is a rotation and $f$ (strongly) convex then $f circ g$ is (strongly) convex as well.



          Generally, $g(x) = Ax + w$ with $A in Bbb R^{ntimes m}$ and $w in Bbb R^n$ is an affine transformation from $ Bbb R^m$ to $ Bbb R^n$. In particular,
          $$
          g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y) = lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)
          $$

          for $x, y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$. Therefore, if $f : Bbb R^n to Bbb R$ is convex then
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          le lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          which shows that $f circ g$ is convex as well.



          If $f$ is strongly convex and $A$ has full column rank then $f circ g$ is strongly convex as well: $g$ is injective, so that $x ne y$ implies
          $g(x) ne g(y)$, and therefore
          $$
          f(g(lambda x + (1-lambda) y)) = f( lambda g(x)+ (1-lambda) g(y)) \
          < lambda f(g(x))+ (1-lambda) f(g(y))
          $$

          for $x ne y in Bbb R^m$ and $0 < lambda < 1$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 26 '18 at 11:48









          Martin RMartin R

          29.7k33558




          29.7k33558












          • $begingroup$
            I understand, thanks and I will try to follow all the steps of your prove. And about my first argument?
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:01










          • $begingroup$
            @Meliodas: Your conclusion in (1) is current, but I would not call "what I'm doing is a translation, and geometric properties of f will not change" a strict proof. Note also that (1) is a special case of (2).
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:25










          • $begingroup$
            thanks, yes is not a very strict prove. I wanted to prove it without the calcul but I understand is better if I do all the calculus work.
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:35


















          • $begingroup$
            I understand, thanks and I will try to follow all the steps of your prove. And about my first argument?
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:01










          • $begingroup$
            @Meliodas: Your conclusion in (1) is current, but I would not call "what I'm doing is a translation, and geometric properties of f will not change" a strict proof. Note also that (1) is a special case of (2).
            $endgroup$
            – Martin R
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:25










          • $begingroup$
            thanks, yes is not a very strict prove. I wanted to prove it without the calcul but I understand is better if I do all the calculus work.
            $endgroup$
            – Meliodas
            Dec 26 '18 at 14:35
















          $begingroup$
          I understand, thanks and I will try to follow all the steps of your prove. And about my first argument?
          $endgroup$
          – Meliodas
          Dec 26 '18 at 14:01




          $begingroup$
          I understand, thanks and I will try to follow all the steps of your prove. And about my first argument?
          $endgroup$
          – Meliodas
          Dec 26 '18 at 14:01












          $begingroup$
          @Meliodas: Your conclusion in (1) is current, but I would not call "what I'm doing is a translation, and geometric properties of f will not change" a strict proof. Note also that (1) is a special case of (2).
          $endgroup$
          – Martin R
          Dec 26 '18 at 14:25




          $begingroup$
          @Meliodas: Your conclusion in (1) is current, but I would not call "what I'm doing is a translation, and geometric properties of f will not change" a strict proof. Note also that (1) is a special case of (2).
          $endgroup$
          – Martin R
          Dec 26 '18 at 14:25












          $begingroup$
          thanks, yes is not a very strict prove. I wanted to prove it without the calcul but I understand is better if I do all the calculus work.
          $endgroup$
          – Meliodas
          Dec 26 '18 at 14:35




          $begingroup$
          thanks, yes is not a very strict prove. I wanted to prove it without the calcul but I understand is better if I do all the calculus work.
          $endgroup$
          – Meliodas
          Dec 26 '18 at 14:35


















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