How to prove that if $aequiv b pmod{kn}$ then $a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}$












2












$begingroup$


What I have done is this:



$aequiv b pmod{2n}$,



$a=b+ctimes2n$, for some $c$,



$a^2=b^2+2btimes ctimes2n+c^2times2^2n^2$,



$a^2-b^2=(btimes c+c^2n)times4n$, then



$a^2equiv b^2pmod{2^2n}$.



I think that this is right: what I DON’T understand is how to generalize this to:



$aequiv bpmod{kn}Rightarrow a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}$.



Please give me a hint.










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migrated from crypto.stackexchange.com Dec 1 '11 at 13:30


This question came from our site for software developers, mathematicians and others interested in cryptography.


















  • $begingroup$
    Hi @gurghet - I've migrated your question here as it has no direct relation to cryptography as is - so this is the best place to get a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – user892
    Dec 1 '11 at 13:32
















2












$begingroup$


What I have done is this:



$aequiv b pmod{2n}$,



$a=b+ctimes2n$, for some $c$,



$a^2=b^2+2btimes ctimes2n+c^2times2^2n^2$,



$a^2-b^2=(btimes c+c^2n)times4n$, then



$a^2equiv b^2pmod{2^2n}$.



I think that this is right: what I DON’T understand is how to generalize this to:



$aequiv bpmod{kn}Rightarrow a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}$.



Please give me a hint.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



migrated from crypto.stackexchange.com Dec 1 '11 at 13:30


This question came from our site for software developers, mathematicians and others interested in cryptography.


















  • $begingroup$
    Hi @gurghet - I've migrated your question here as it has no direct relation to cryptography as is - so this is the best place to get a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – user892
    Dec 1 '11 at 13:32














2












2








2


0



$begingroup$


What I have done is this:



$aequiv b pmod{2n}$,



$a=b+ctimes2n$, for some $c$,



$a^2=b^2+2btimes ctimes2n+c^2times2^2n^2$,



$a^2-b^2=(btimes c+c^2n)times4n$, then



$a^2equiv b^2pmod{2^2n}$.



I think that this is right: what I DON’T understand is how to generalize this to:



$aequiv bpmod{kn}Rightarrow a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}$.



Please give me a hint.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




What I have done is this:



$aequiv b pmod{2n}$,



$a=b+ctimes2n$, for some $c$,



$a^2=b^2+2btimes ctimes2n+c^2times2^2n^2$,



$a^2-b^2=(btimes c+c^2n)times4n$, then



$a^2equiv b^2pmod{2^2n}$.



I think that this is right: what I DON’T understand is how to generalize this to:



$aequiv bpmod{kn}Rightarrow a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}$.



Please give me a hint.







number-theory






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 4 at 15:33









Bill Dubuque

213k29196654




213k29196654










asked Dec 1 '11 at 10:52









gurghetgurghet

276213




276213




migrated from crypto.stackexchange.com Dec 1 '11 at 13:30


This question came from our site for software developers, mathematicians and others interested in cryptography.









migrated from crypto.stackexchange.com Dec 1 '11 at 13:30


This question came from our site for software developers, mathematicians and others interested in cryptography.














  • $begingroup$
    Hi @gurghet - I've migrated your question here as it has no direct relation to cryptography as is - so this is the best place to get a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – user892
    Dec 1 '11 at 13:32


















  • $begingroup$
    Hi @gurghet - I've migrated your question here as it has no direct relation to cryptography as is - so this is the best place to get a good answer.
    $endgroup$
    – user892
    Dec 1 '11 at 13:32
















$begingroup$
Hi @gurghet - I've migrated your question here as it has no direct relation to cryptography as is - so this is the best place to get a good answer.
$endgroup$
– user892
Dec 1 '11 at 13:32




$begingroup$
Hi @gurghet - I've migrated your question here as it has no direct relation to cryptography as is - so this is the best place to get a good answer.
$endgroup$
– user892
Dec 1 '11 at 13:32










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















7












$begingroup$

Since $aequiv bpmod{kn}$, we have
$$a=b+ckn$$
for some integer $c$. Now taking the $k$th power on both sides, we have
$$a^k=(b+ckn)^k.$$
By the binomial theorem, the right hand side is given by
$$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+sum_{i=1}^k{kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}.$$
For $igeq 2$, it is clear that
${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}$ is divisble by $k^2n$. On the other hand, for $i=1$, we have
${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}=ck^2nb^{k-1}$, which is also divisble by $k^2n$. Therefore, by the above equality, we have
$$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN$$
for some integer $N$. Combining all these, we have
$$a^k=(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN,$$
that is
$$a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks but I’m not sure about the binomial theorem. Is that right? I think it misses a $b^{k-i}$ in the sum.
    $endgroup$
    – gurghet
    Dec 1 '11 at 16:01












  • $begingroup$
    It works anyway! Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – gurghet
    Dec 1 '11 at 16:09










  • $begingroup$
    @gurghet: Yes, you are right! I missed the term $b^{k-i}$. See my edited answer. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Paul
    Dec 1 '11 at 21:52



















7












$begingroup$

Hint $ $ It's a special case of: $ $ a root of a polynomial is a double root if the derivative vanishes.



Thus to prove that $rm kmid a-b Rightarrow k^2 mid a^k-b^k = (a-b) dfrac{a^k-b^k}{a-b}, $ it suffices to prove



that $rm,k,$ divides the second factor $rm,g.,$ Theorem $Rightarrowrm, gequiv, (a^k)'equiv color{#c00}k, a^{k-1}equiv,0 pmod{!color{#c00}k}. $ QED



Theorem $ $ For $rm R$ a ring and $rm,f(x)in R[x]quad $ [Universal Polynomial Derivative Formula]



$$rmbegin{eqnarray}{}&rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y} in R[x,y]\[.3em]
Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm f'(x) in R[x]
end{eqnarray}$$



Proof $ $ By $rm,R$-linearity of the derivative it suffices to verify it for a monomial $rm f(x) = x^k,.$



$$begin{eqnarray}{}rm &rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{x^k-y^k}{x-y}, = x^{k-1} + x^{k-2},y +, cdots, + x,y^{k-2} + y^{k-1}\[.3em]
Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm k x^{k-1} = f'(x)quad {bf QED}
end{eqnarray}qquad $$



Remark $ $ To elaborate on a subtlety mentioned in a comment, $rm,g(x,y)in R[x,y],$ means that $rm ,g(x,y),$ denotes a polynomial in the indeterminates $rm,x,y,,$ whose coefficients lie in the ring $rm,R,$ (recall that $rm,x-y,$ divides $rm,f(x)-f(y),$ in $rm,R[x,y],$ by the Factor Theorem). Being a polynomial its value is well-defined for all values of $rm ,x,y,$ so we can "evaluate" it at $rm,y = x,$ (as is exemplified by the concrete case $rm,f(x) = x^k$ used in the proof).



In effect we exploit properties of polynomial rings to universally cancel an "apparent singularity" before evaluating. In more complicated contexts this can lead to nontrivial simplifications, e.g. replacing more complicated topological arguments by trivial algebraic arguments, e.g. see the discussion of the purely algebraic proof of Sylvester's determinant identity linked here.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    It is worth emphasizing that $g(x,y)=dfrac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}in R[x,y]$ is NOT the imperative "take (f(x)-f(y)) and divide by (x-y)", but the polynomial in two variables (that's what "$in R[x,y]$" means) which when multiplied by (x-y) results in f(x)-f(y) -- this is why g(x,x) is not undefined.
    $endgroup$
    – Vladimir Sotirov
    Feb 11 '12 at 17:39










  • $begingroup$
    @VladimirSotirov Actually it does denote the result of that polynomial division. But evaluating it at "apparent singularities" requires that we compute the quotient before we evaluate it. I added a remark elaborating on this subtlety.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Jan 4 at 16:16





















5












$begingroup$

Since



$a^k-b^k=(a-b)(a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots b^{k-1})$



we need only prove that
$a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1}$ is divisible by $k$. But since $a equiv b (text{mod} k)$ we see that



$ a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1} equiv a^{k-1}+a^{k-1}+ldots +a^{k-1} equiv ka^{k-1} equiv 0 (text{mod} k). $






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    3 Answers
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    active

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    3 Answers
    3






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    7












    $begingroup$

    Since $aequiv bpmod{kn}$, we have
    $$a=b+ckn$$
    for some integer $c$. Now taking the $k$th power on both sides, we have
    $$a^k=(b+ckn)^k.$$
    By the binomial theorem, the right hand side is given by
    $$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+sum_{i=1}^k{kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}.$$
    For $igeq 2$, it is clear that
    ${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}$ is divisble by $k^2n$. On the other hand, for $i=1$, we have
    ${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}=ck^2nb^{k-1}$, which is also divisble by $k^2n$. Therefore, by the above equality, we have
    $$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN$$
    for some integer $N$. Combining all these, we have
    $$a^k=(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN,$$
    that is
    $$a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Thanks but I’m not sure about the binomial theorem. Is that right? I think it misses a $b^{k-i}$ in the sum.
      $endgroup$
      – gurghet
      Dec 1 '11 at 16:01












    • $begingroup$
      It works anyway! Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – gurghet
      Dec 1 '11 at 16:09










    • $begingroup$
      @gurghet: Yes, you are right! I missed the term $b^{k-i}$. See my edited answer. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Paul
      Dec 1 '11 at 21:52
















    7












    $begingroup$

    Since $aequiv bpmod{kn}$, we have
    $$a=b+ckn$$
    for some integer $c$. Now taking the $k$th power on both sides, we have
    $$a^k=(b+ckn)^k.$$
    By the binomial theorem, the right hand side is given by
    $$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+sum_{i=1}^k{kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}.$$
    For $igeq 2$, it is clear that
    ${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}$ is divisble by $k^2n$. On the other hand, for $i=1$, we have
    ${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}=ck^2nb^{k-1}$, which is also divisble by $k^2n$. Therefore, by the above equality, we have
    $$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN$$
    for some integer $N$. Combining all these, we have
    $$a^k=(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN,$$
    that is
    $$a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Thanks but I’m not sure about the binomial theorem. Is that right? I think it misses a $b^{k-i}$ in the sum.
      $endgroup$
      – gurghet
      Dec 1 '11 at 16:01












    • $begingroup$
      It works anyway! Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – gurghet
      Dec 1 '11 at 16:09










    • $begingroup$
      @gurghet: Yes, you are right! I missed the term $b^{k-i}$. See my edited answer. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Paul
      Dec 1 '11 at 21:52














    7












    7








    7





    $begingroup$

    Since $aequiv bpmod{kn}$, we have
    $$a=b+ckn$$
    for some integer $c$. Now taking the $k$th power on both sides, we have
    $$a^k=(b+ckn)^k.$$
    By the binomial theorem, the right hand side is given by
    $$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+sum_{i=1}^k{kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}.$$
    For $igeq 2$, it is clear that
    ${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}$ is divisble by $k^2n$. On the other hand, for $i=1$, we have
    ${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}=ck^2nb^{k-1}$, which is also divisble by $k^2n$. Therefore, by the above equality, we have
    $$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN$$
    for some integer $N$. Combining all these, we have
    $$a^k=(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN,$$
    that is
    $$a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Since $aequiv bpmod{kn}$, we have
    $$a=b+ckn$$
    for some integer $c$. Now taking the $k$th power on both sides, we have
    $$a^k=(b+ckn)^k.$$
    By the binomial theorem, the right hand side is given by
    $$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+sum_{i=1}^k{kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}.$$
    For $igeq 2$, it is clear that
    ${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}$ is divisble by $k^2n$. On the other hand, for $i=1$, we have
    ${kchoose i}(ckn)^ib^{k-i}=ck^2nb^{k-1}$, which is also divisble by $k^2n$. Therefore, by the above equality, we have
    $$(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN$$
    for some integer $N$. Combining all these, we have
    $$a^k=(b+ckn)^k=b^k+k^2nN,$$
    that is
    $$a^kequiv b^k pmod{k^2n}.$$







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Dec 1 '11 at 21:51

























    answered Dec 1 '11 at 13:39









    PaulPaul

    16.1k33767




    16.1k33767








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Thanks but I’m not sure about the binomial theorem. Is that right? I think it misses a $b^{k-i}$ in the sum.
      $endgroup$
      – gurghet
      Dec 1 '11 at 16:01












    • $begingroup$
      It works anyway! Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – gurghet
      Dec 1 '11 at 16:09










    • $begingroup$
      @gurghet: Yes, you are right! I missed the term $b^{k-i}$. See my edited answer. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Paul
      Dec 1 '11 at 21:52














    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Thanks but I’m not sure about the binomial theorem. Is that right? I think it misses a $b^{k-i}$ in the sum.
      $endgroup$
      – gurghet
      Dec 1 '11 at 16:01












    • $begingroup$
      It works anyway! Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – gurghet
      Dec 1 '11 at 16:09










    • $begingroup$
      @gurghet: Yes, you are right! I missed the term $b^{k-i}$. See my edited answer. Thanks!
      $endgroup$
      – Paul
      Dec 1 '11 at 21:52








    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks but I’m not sure about the binomial theorem. Is that right? I think it misses a $b^{k-i}$ in the sum.
    $endgroup$
    – gurghet
    Dec 1 '11 at 16:01






    $begingroup$
    Thanks but I’m not sure about the binomial theorem. Is that right? I think it misses a $b^{k-i}$ in the sum.
    $endgroup$
    – gurghet
    Dec 1 '11 at 16:01














    $begingroup$
    It works anyway! Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – gurghet
    Dec 1 '11 at 16:09




    $begingroup$
    It works anyway! Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – gurghet
    Dec 1 '11 at 16:09












    $begingroup$
    @gurghet: Yes, you are right! I missed the term $b^{k-i}$. See my edited answer. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Paul
    Dec 1 '11 at 21:52




    $begingroup$
    @gurghet: Yes, you are right! I missed the term $b^{k-i}$. See my edited answer. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Paul
    Dec 1 '11 at 21:52











    7












    $begingroup$

    Hint $ $ It's a special case of: $ $ a root of a polynomial is a double root if the derivative vanishes.



    Thus to prove that $rm kmid a-b Rightarrow k^2 mid a^k-b^k = (a-b) dfrac{a^k-b^k}{a-b}, $ it suffices to prove



    that $rm,k,$ divides the second factor $rm,g.,$ Theorem $Rightarrowrm, gequiv, (a^k)'equiv color{#c00}k, a^{k-1}equiv,0 pmod{!color{#c00}k}. $ QED



    Theorem $ $ For $rm R$ a ring and $rm,f(x)in R[x]quad $ [Universal Polynomial Derivative Formula]



    $$rmbegin{eqnarray}{}&rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y} in R[x,y]\[.3em]
    Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm f'(x) in R[x]
    end{eqnarray}$$



    Proof $ $ By $rm,R$-linearity of the derivative it suffices to verify it for a monomial $rm f(x) = x^k,.$



    $$begin{eqnarray}{}rm &rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{x^k-y^k}{x-y}, = x^{k-1} + x^{k-2},y +, cdots, + x,y^{k-2} + y^{k-1}\[.3em]
    Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm k x^{k-1} = f'(x)quad {bf QED}
    end{eqnarray}qquad $$



    Remark $ $ To elaborate on a subtlety mentioned in a comment, $rm,g(x,y)in R[x,y],$ means that $rm ,g(x,y),$ denotes a polynomial in the indeterminates $rm,x,y,,$ whose coefficients lie in the ring $rm,R,$ (recall that $rm,x-y,$ divides $rm,f(x)-f(y),$ in $rm,R[x,y],$ by the Factor Theorem). Being a polynomial its value is well-defined for all values of $rm ,x,y,$ so we can "evaluate" it at $rm,y = x,$ (as is exemplified by the concrete case $rm,f(x) = x^k$ used in the proof).



    In effect we exploit properties of polynomial rings to universally cancel an "apparent singularity" before evaluating. In more complicated contexts this can lead to nontrivial simplifications, e.g. replacing more complicated topological arguments by trivial algebraic arguments, e.g. see the discussion of the purely algebraic proof of Sylvester's determinant identity linked here.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      It is worth emphasizing that $g(x,y)=dfrac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}in R[x,y]$ is NOT the imperative "take (f(x)-f(y)) and divide by (x-y)", but the polynomial in two variables (that's what "$in R[x,y]$" means) which when multiplied by (x-y) results in f(x)-f(y) -- this is why g(x,x) is not undefined.
      $endgroup$
      – Vladimir Sotirov
      Feb 11 '12 at 17:39










    • $begingroup$
      @VladimirSotirov Actually it does denote the result of that polynomial division. But evaluating it at "apparent singularities" requires that we compute the quotient before we evaluate it. I added a remark elaborating on this subtlety.
      $endgroup$
      – Bill Dubuque
      Jan 4 at 16:16


















    7












    $begingroup$

    Hint $ $ It's a special case of: $ $ a root of a polynomial is a double root if the derivative vanishes.



    Thus to prove that $rm kmid a-b Rightarrow k^2 mid a^k-b^k = (a-b) dfrac{a^k-b^k}{a-b}, $ it suffices to prove



    that $rm,k,$ divides the second factor $rm,g.,$ Theorem $Rightarrowrm, gequiv, (a^k)'equiv color{#c00}k, a^{k-1}equiv,0 pmod{!color{#c00}k}. $ QED



    Theorem $ $ For $rm R$ a ring and $rm,f(x)in R[x]quad $ [Universal Polynomial Derivative Formula]



    $$rmbegin{eqnarray}{}&rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y} in R[x,y]\[.3em]
    Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm f'(x) in R[x]
    end{eqnarray}$$



    Proof $ $ By $rm,R$-linearity of the derivative it suffices to verify it for a monomial $rm f(x) = x^k,.$



    $$begin{eqnarray}{}rm &rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{x^k-y^k}{x-y}, = x^{k-1} + x^{k-2},y +, cdots, + x,y^{k-2} + y^{k-1}\[.3em]
    Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm k x^{k-1} = f'(x)quad {bf QED}
    end{eqnarray}qquad $$



    Remark $ $ To elaborate on a subtlety mentioned in a comment, $rm,g(x,y)in R[x,y],$ means that $rm ,g(x,y),$ denotes a polynomial in the indeterminates $rm,x,y,,$ whose coefficients lie in the ring $rm,R,$ (recall that $rm,x-y,$ divides $rm,f(x)-f(y),$ in $rm,R[x,y],$ by the Factor Theorem). Being a polynomial its value is well-defined for all values of $rm ,x,y,$ so we can "evaluate" it at $rm,y = x,$ (as is exemplified by the concrete case $rm,f(x) = x^k$ used in the proof).



    In effect we exploit properties of polynomial rings to universally cancel an "apparent singularity" before evaluating. In more complicated contexts this can lead to nontrivial simplifications, e.g. replacing more complicated topological arguments by trivial algebraic arguments, e.g. see the discussion of the purely algebraic proof of Sylvester's determinant identity linked here.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      It is worth emphasizing that $g(x,y)=dfrac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}in R[x,y]$ is NOT the imperative "take (f(x)-f(y)) and divide by (x-y)", but the polynomial in two variables (that's what "$in R[x,y]$" means) which when multiplied by (x-y) results in f(x)-f(y) -- this is why g(x,x) is not undefined.
      $endgroup$
      – Vladimir Sotirov
      Feb 11 '12 at 17:39










    • $begingroup$
      @VladimirSotirov Actually it does denote the result of that polynomial division. But evaluating it at "apparent singularities" requires that we compute the quotient before we evaluate it. I added a remark elaborating on this subtlety.
      $endgroup$
      – Bill Dubuque
      Jan 4 at 16:16
















    7












    7








    7





    $begingroup$

    Hint $ $ It's a special case of: $ $ a root of a polynomial is a double root if the derivative vanishes.



    Thus to prove that $rm kmid a-b Rightarrow k^2 mid a^k-b^k = (a-b) dfrac{a^k-b^k}{a-b}, $ it suffices to prove



    that $rm,k,$ divides the second factor $rm,g.,$ Theorem $Rightarrowrm, gequiv, (a^k)'equiv color{#c00}k, a^{k-1}equiv,0 pmod{!color{#c00}k}. $ QED



    Theorem $ $ For $rm R$ a ring and $rm,f(x)in R[x]quad $ [Universal Polynomial Derivative Formula]



    $$rmbegin{eqnarray}{}&rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y} in R[x,y]\[.3em]
    Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm f'(x) in R[x]
    end{eqnarray}$$



    Proof $ $ By $rm,R$-linearity of the derivative it suffices to verify it for a monomial $rm f(x) = x^k,.$



    $$begin{eqnarray}{}rm &rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{x^k-y^k}{x-y}, = x^{k-1} + x^{k-2},y +, cdots, + x,y^{k-2} + y^{k-1}\[.3em]
    Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm k x^{k-1} = f'(x)quad {bf QED}
    end{eqnarray}qquad $$



    Remark $ $ To elaborate on a subtlety mentioned in a comment, $rm,g(x,y)in R[x,y],$ means that $rm ,g(x,y),$ denotes a polynomial in the indeterminates $rm,x,y,,$ whose coefficients lie in the ring $rm,R,$ (recall that $rm,x-y,$ divides $rm,f(x)-f(y),$ in $rm,R[x,y],$ by the Factor Theorem). Being a polynomial its value is well-defined for all values of $rm ,x,y,$ so we can "evaluate" it at $rm,y = x,$ (as is exemplified by the concrete case $rm,f(x) = x^k$ used in the proof).



    In effect we exploit properties of polynomial rings to universally cancel an "apparent singularity" before evaluating. In more complicated contexts this can lead to nontrivial simplifications, e.g. replacing more complicated topological arguments by trivial algebraic arguments, e.g. see the discussion of the purely algebraic proof of Sylvester's determinant identity linked here.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    Hint $ $ It's a special case of: $ $ a root of a polynomial is a double root if the derivative vanishes.



    Thus to prove that $rm kmid a-b Rightarrow k^2 mid a^k-b^k = (a-b) dfrac{a^k-b^k}{a-b}, $ it suffices to prove



    that $rm,k,$ divides the second factor $rm,g.,$ Theorem $Rightarrowrm, gequiv, (a^k)'equiv color{#c00}k, a^{k-1}equiv,0 pmod{!color{#c00}k}. $ QED



    Theorem $ $ For $rm R$ a ring and $rm,f(x)in R[x]quad $ [Universal Polynomial Derivative Formula]



    $$rmbegin{eqnarray}{}&rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y} in R[x,y]\[.3em]
    Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm f'(x) in R[x]
    end{eqnarray}$$



    Proof $ $ By $rm,R$-linearity of the derivative it suffices to verify it for a monomial $rm f(x) = x^k,.$



    $$begin{eqnarray}{}rm &rm g(x,y) &=&rm frac{x^k-y^k}{x-y}, = x^{k-1} + x^{k-2},y +, cdots, + x,y^{k-2} + y^{k-1}\[.3em]
    Rightarrow &rm g(x,x) &=&rm k x^{k-1} = f'(x)quad {bf QED}
    end{eqnarray}qquad $$



    Remark $ $ To elaborate on a subtlety mentioned in a comment, $rm,g(x,y)in R[x,y],$ means that $rm ,g(x,y),$ denotes a polynomial in the indeterminates $rm,x,y,,$ whose coefficients lie in the ring $rm,R,$ (recall that $rm,x-y,$ divides $rm,f(x)-f(y),$ in $rm,R[x,y],$ by the Factor Theorem). Being a polynomial its value is well-defined for all values of $rm ,x,y,$ so we can "evaluate" it at $rm,y = x,$ (as is exemplified by the concrete case $rm,f(x) = x^k$ used in the proof).



    In effect we exploit properties of polynomial rings to universally cancel an "apparent singularity" before evaluating. In more complicated contexts this can lead to nontrivial simplifications, e.g. replacing more complicated topological arguments by trivial algebraic arguments, e.g. see the discussion of the purely algebraic proof of Sylvester's determinant identity linked here.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Mar 20 at 21:45

























    answered Jan 23 '12 at 6:01









    Bill DubuqueBill Dubuque

    213k29196654




    213k29196654








    • 2




      $begingroup$
      It is worth emphasizing that $g(x,y)=dfrac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}in R[x,y]$ is NOT the imperative "take (f(x)-f(y)) and divide by (x-y)", but the polynomial in two variables (that's what "$in R[x,y]$" means) which when multiplied by (x-y) results in f(x)-f(y) -- this is why g(x,x) is not undefined.
      $endgroup$
      – Vladimir Sotirov
      Feb 11 '12 at 17:39










    • $begingroup$
      @VladimirSotirov Actually it does denote the result of that polynomial division. But evaluating it at "apparent singularities" requires that we compute the quotient before we evaluate it. I added a remark elaborating on this subtlety.
      $endgroup$
      – Bill Dubuque
      Jan 4 at 16:16
















    • 2




      $begingroup$
      It is worth emphasizing that $g(x,y)=dfrac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}in R[x,y]$ is NOT the imperative "take (f(x)-f(y)) and divide by (x-y)", but the polynomial in two variables (that's what "$in R[x,y]$" means) which when multiplied by (x-y) results in f(x)-f(y) -- this is why g(x,x) is not undefined.
      $endgroup$
      – Vladimir Sotirov
      Feb 11 '12 at 17:39










    • $begingroup$
      @VladimirSotirov Actually it does denote the result of that polynomial division. But evaluating it at "apparent singularities" requires that we compute the quotient before we evaluate it. I added a remark elaborating on this subtlety.
      $endgroup$
      – Bill Dubuque
      Jan 4 at 16:16










    2




    2




    $begingroup$
    It is worth emphasizing that $g(x,y)=dfrac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}in R[x,y]$ is NOT the imperative "take (f(x)-f(y)) and divide by (x-y)", but the polynomial in two variables (that's what "$in R[x,y]$" means) which when multiplied by (x-y) results in f(x)-f(y) -- this is why g(x,x) is not undefined.
    $endgroup$
    – Vladimir Sotirov
    Feb 11 '12 at 17:39




    $begingroup$
    It is worth emphasizing that $g(x,y)=dfrac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}in R[x,y]$ is NOT the imperative "take (f(x)-f(y)) and divide by (x-y)", but the polynomial in two variables (that's what "$in R[x,y]$" means) which when multiplied by (x-y) results in f(x)-f(y) -- this is why g(x,x) is not undefined.
    $endgroup$
    – Vladimir Sotirov
    Feb 11 '12 at 17:39












    $begingroup$
    @VladimirSotirov Actually it does denote the result of that polynomial division. But evaluating it at "apparent singularities" requires that we compute the quotient before we evaluate it. I added a remark elaborating on this subtlety.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Jan 4 at 16:16






    $begingroup$
    @VladimirSotirov Actually it does denote the result of that polynomial division. But evaluating it at "apparent singularities" requires that we compute the quotient before we evaluate it. I added a remark elaborating on this subtlety.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Jan 4 at 16:16













    5












    $begingroup$

    Since



    $a^k-b^k=(a-b)(a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots b^{k-1})$



    we need only prove that
    $a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1}$ is divisible by $k$. But since $a equiv b (text{mod} k)$ we see that



    $ a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1} equiv a^{k-1}+a^{k-1}+ldots +a^{k-1} equiv ka^{k-1} equiv 0 (text{mod} k). $






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      5












      $begingroup$

      Since



      $a^k-b^k=(a-b)(a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots b^{k-1})$



      we need only prove that
      $a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1}$ is divisible by $k$. But since $a equiv b (text{mod} k)$ we see that



      $ a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1} equiv a^{k-1}+a^{k-1}+ldots +a^{k-1} equiv ka^{k-1} equiv 0 (text{mod} k). $






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        Since



        $a^k-b^k=(a-b)(a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots b^{k-1})$



        we need only prove that
        $a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1}$ is divisible by $k$. But since $a equiv b (text{mod} k)$ we see that



        $ a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1} equiv a^{k-1}+a^{k-1}+ldots +a^{k-1} equiv ka^{k-1} equiv 0 (text{mod} k). $






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Since



        $a^k-b^k=(a-b)(a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots b^{k-1})$



        we need only prove that
        $a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1}$ is divisible by $k$. But since $a equiv b (text{mod} k)$ we see that



        $ a^{k-1}+a^{k-2}b+ldots + b^{k-1} equiv a^{k-1}+a^{k-1}+ldots +a^{k-1} equiv ka^{k-1} equiv 0 (text{mod} k). $







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 1 '11 at 14:54









        JohanJohan

        1,2011821




        1,2011821






























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