Taylor expansion of $e^{cos x}$
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I have to find the 5th order Taylor expansion of $e ^{cos x}$. I know how to do it by computing the derivatives of the function, but the 5th derivative is about a mile long, so I was wondering if there is an easier way to do it.
I'd appreciate any help.
sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
I have to find the 5th order Taylor expansion of $e ^{cos x}$. I know how to do it by computing the derivatives of the function, but the 5th derivative is about a mile long, so I was wondering if there is an easier way to do it.
I'd appreciate any help.
sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
– Hurkyl
Dec 28 '13 at 0:24
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
up vote
5
down vote
favorite
I have to find the 5th order Taylor expansion of $e ^{cos x}$. I know how to do it by computing the derivatives of the function, but the 5th derivative is about a mile long, so I was wondering if there is an easier way to do it.
I'd appreciate any help.
sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
I have to find the 5th order Taylor expansion of $e ^{cos x}$. I know how to do it by computing the derivatives of the function, but the 5th derivative is about a mile long, so I was wondering if there is an easier way to do it.
I'd appreciate any help.
sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
sequences-and-series taylor-expansion
edited Dec 28 '13 at 0:21
egreg
175k1383198
175k1383198
asked Dec 28 '13 at 0:19
FranciscoS
2814
2814
You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
– Hurkyl
Dec 28 '13 at 0:24
add a comment |
You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
– Hurkyl
Dec 28 '13 at 0:24
You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
– Hurkyl
Dec 28 '13 at 0:24
You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
– Hurkyl
Dec 28 '13 at 0:24
add a comment |
6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
up vote
13
down vote
Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).
May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
– mrs
Aug 4 '16 at 6:51
The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
– Yury
Aug 4 '16 at 13:25
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
Hint
$$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
$exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.
$$begin{align}
exp(cos x)
&= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
&= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
end{align}
$$
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
Use
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.
The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.
firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.
What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x
the taylor series are:
$$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$
substituting in:
$$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$
Now there is a problem:
we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1
Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1
which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:02
The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:10
add a comment |
6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
13
down vote
Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).
May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
– mrs
Aug 4 '16 at 6:51
The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
– Yury
Aug 4 '16 at 13:25
add a comment |
up vote
13
down vote
Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).
May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
– mrs
Aug 4 '16 at 6:51
The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
– Yury
Aug 4 '16 at 13:25
add a comment |
up vote
13
down vote
up vote
13
down vote
Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).
Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).
answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:23
Yury
6,2701425
6,2701425
May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
– mrs
Aug 4 '16 at 6:51
The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
– Yury
Aug 4 '16 at 13:25
add a comment |
May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
– mrs
Aug 4 '16 at 6:51
The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
– Yury
Aug 4 '16 at 13:25
May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
– mrs
Aug 4 '16 at 6:51
May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
– mrs
Aug 4 '16 at 6:51
The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
– Yury
Aug 4 '16 at 13:25
The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
– Yury
Aug 4 '16 at 13:25
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
Hint
$$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
Hint
$$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
Hint
$$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$
Hint
$$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$
answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:22
Hanul Jeon
17.4k42680
17.4k42680
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
$exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.
$$begin{align}
exp(cos x)
&= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
&= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
end{align}
$$
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
$exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.
$$begin{align}
exp(cos x)
&= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
&= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
end{align}
$$
add a comment |
up vote
5
down vote
up vote
5
down vote
You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
$exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.
$$begin{align}
exp(cos x)
&= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
&= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
end{align}
$$
You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
$exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.
$$begin{align}
exp(cos x)
&= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
&= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
&= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
end{align}
$$
answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:38
achille hui
94.4k5129254
94.4k5129254
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
Use
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
Use
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.
add a comment |
up vote
3
down vote
up vote
3
down vote
Use
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.
Use
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.
edited Dec 28 '13 at 0:33
answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:24
André Nicolas
450k36419803
450k36419803
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.
This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.
answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:30
Michael Hardy
1
1
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.
The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.
firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.
What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x
the taylor series are:
$$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$
substituting in:
$$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$
Now there is a problem:
we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1
Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1
which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:02
The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:10
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.
The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.
firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.
What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x
the taylor series are:
$$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$
substituting in:
$$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$
Now there is a problem:
we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1
Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1
which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:02
The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:10
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.
The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.
firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.
What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x
the taylor series are:
$$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$
substituting in:
$$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$
Now there is a problem:
we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1
Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1
which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.
The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.
firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.
What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x
the taylor series are:
$$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$
substituting in:
$$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$
Now there is a problem:
we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1
Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1
which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.
$$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
answered Sep 13 '14 at 21:31
Jonathan Durrant
211
211
Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:02
The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:10
add a comment |
Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:02
The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:10
Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:02
Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:02
The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:10
The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
– G Cab
Nov 22 at 23:10
add a comment |
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You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
– Hurkyl
Dec 28 '13 at 0:24