Taylor expansion of $e^{cos x}$











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I have to find the 5th order Taylor expansion of $e ^{cos x}$. I know how to do it by computing the derivatives of the function, but the 5th derivative is about a mile long, so I was wondering if there is an easier way to do it.



I'd appreciate any help.










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  • You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
    – Hurkyl
    Dec 28 '13 at 0:24

















up vote
5
down vote

favorite
3












I have to find the 5th order Taylor expansion of $e ^{cos x}$. I know how to do it by computing the derivatives of the function, but the 5th derivative is about a mile long, so I was wondering if there is an easier way to do it.



I'd appreciate any help.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
    – Hurkyl
    Dec 28 '13 at 0:24















up vote
5
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
5
down vote

favorite
3






3





I have to find the 5th order Taylor expansion of $e ^{cos x}$. I know how to do it by computing the derivatives of the function, but the 5th derivative is about a mile long, so I was wondering if there is an easier way to do it.



I'd appreciate any help.










share|cite|improve this question















I have to find the 5th order Taylor expansion of $e ^{cos x}$. I know how to do it by computing the derivatives of the function, but the 5th derivative is about a mile long, so I was wondering if there is an easier way to do it.



I'd appreciate any help.







sequences-and-series taylor-expansion






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edited Dec 28 '13 at 0:21









egreg

175k1383198




175k1383198










asked Dec 28 '13 at 0:19









FranciscoS

2814




2814












  • You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
    – Hurkyl
    Dec 28 '13 at 0:24




















  • You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
    – Hurkyl
    Dec 28 '13 at 0:24


















You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
– Hurkyl
Dec 28 '13 at 0:24






You can often simplify things a bit so they aren't a mile long.
– Hurkyl
Dec 28 '13 at 0:24












6 Answers
6






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
13
down vote













Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
    – mrs
    Aug 4 '16 at 6:51










  • The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
    – Yury
    Aug 4 '16 at 13:25


















up vote
5
down vote













Hint
$$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    5
    down vote













    You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
    $exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
    For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.



    $$begin{align}
    exp(cos x)
    &= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
    &= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
    &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
    &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
    end{align}
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      3
      down vote













      Use
      $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
      Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer






























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer




























          up vote
          2
          down vote













          One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.



          The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.



          firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.



          What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x



          the taylor series are:



          $$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
          e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$



          substituting in:



          $$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$



          Now there is a problem:



          we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
          but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1



          Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1



          which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.



          $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
            – G Cab
            Nov 22 at 23:02










          • The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
            – G Cab
            Nov 22 at 23:10











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          6 Answers
          6






          active

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          6 Answers
          6






          active

          oldest

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          active

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          active

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          up vote
          13
          down vote













          Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
            – mrs
            Aug 4 '16 at 6:51










          • The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
            – Yury
            Aug 4 '16 at 13:25















          up vote
          13
          down vote













          Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
            – mrs
            Aug 4 '16 at 6:51










          • The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
            – Yury
            Aug 4 '16 at 13:25













          up vote
          13
          down vote










          up vote
          13
          down vote









          Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Hint: the function $f(x) = e^{cos x}$ is even (that is, $f(x) = f(-x)$).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:23









          Yury

          6,2701425




          6,2701425












          • May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
            – mrs
            Aug 4 '16 at 6:51










          • The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
            – Yury
            Aug 4 '16 at 13:25


















          • May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
            – mrs
            Aug 4 '16 at 6:51










          • The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
            – Yury
            Aug 4 '16 at 13:25
















          May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
          – mrs
          Aug 4 '16 at 6:51




          May I ask you to expalin more on your hint? :-)
          – mrs
          Aug 4 '16 at 6:51












          The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
          – Yury
          Aug 4 '16 at 13:25




          The Taylor series has only terms with even powers of $x$. So you need only to compute the 2-nd and 4-th derivatives.
          – Yury
          Aug 4 '16 at 13:25










          up vote
          5
          down vote













          Hint
          $$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$






          share|cite|improve this answer

























            up vote
            5
            down vote













            Hint
            $$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer























              up vote
              5
              down vote










              up vote
              5
              down vote









              Hint
              $$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$






              share|cite|improve this answer












              Hint
              $$e^{cos x}=sum_{n=0}^infty frac{(cos x)^n}{n!}$$







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:22









              Hanul Jeon

              17.4k42680




              17.4k42680






















                  up vote
                  5
                  down vote













                  You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
                  $exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
                  For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.



                  $$begin{align}
                  exp(cos x)
                  &= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
                  &= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
                  &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
                  &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
                  end{align}
                  $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer

























                    up vote
                    5
                    down vote













                    You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
                    $exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
                    For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.



                    $$begin{align}
                    exp(cos x)
                    &= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
                    &= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
                    &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
                    &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
                    end{align}
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer























                      up vote
                      5
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      5
                      down vote









                      You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
                      $exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
                      For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.



                      $$begin{align}
                      exp(cos x)
                      &= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
                      &= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
                      &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
                      &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
                      end{align}
                      $$






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      You can start with the Taylor expansion of $cos x$ and when you expand
                      $exp(cos x)$, you just throw away terms you know won't affect the final result.
                      For lower order Taylor expansion, the derivation is actually pretty short and straight forward.



                      $$begin{align}
                      exp(cos x)
                      &= expleft(1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right)\
                      &= eleft[1 + left(-frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{24} + O(x^6)right) + frac{1}{2}left( -frac{x^2}{2} + O(x^4)right)^2 + O(x^6) right]\
                      &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + left(frac{1}{24} + frac{1}{8}right) x^4 right] + O(x^6)\
                      &= eleft[ 1 - frac{x^2}{2} + frac{x^4}{6} right] + O(x^6)
                      end{align}
                      $$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:38









                      achille hui

                      94.4k5129254




                      94.4k5129254






















                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote













                          Use
                          $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
                          Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer



























                            up vote
                            3
                            down vote













                            Use
                            $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
                            Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer

























                              up vote
                              3
                              down vote










                              up vote
                              3
                              down vote









                              Use
                              $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
                              Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.






                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              Use
                              $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$
                              Then substitute the power series expansion of $cos x-1$ for $t$ in the power series expansion of $e^t$. What makes this work is that the series for $cos x-1$ has $0$ constant term. For terms in powers of $x$ up to $x^5$, all we need is the part $1+t+frac{t^2}{2!}$ of the power series expansion of $e^t$, and only the part $-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}$ of the series expansion of $cos x -1$.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Dec 28 '13 at 0:33

























                              answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:24









                              André Nicolas

                              450k36419803




                              450k36419803






















                                  up vote
                                  2
                                  down vote













                                  This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer

























                                    up vote
                                    2
                                    down vote













                                    This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer























                                      up vote
                                      2
                                      down vote










                                      up vote
                                      2
                                      down vote









                                      This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      This article explains how to get the power series for $e^{f(x)}$ if you know the power series for $f(x)$.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Dec 28 '13 at 0:30









                                      Michael Hardy

                                      1




                                      1






















                                          up vote
                                          2
                                          down vote













                                          One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.



                                          The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.



                                          firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.



                                          What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x



                                          the taylor series are:



                                          $$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
                                          e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$



                                          substituting in:



                                          $$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$



                                          Now there is a problem:



                                          we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
                                          but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1



                                          Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1



                                          which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.



                                          $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$






                                          share|cite|improve this answer





















                                          • Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
                                            – G Cab
                                            Nov 22 at 23:02










                                          • The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
                                            – G Cab
                                            Nov 22 at 23:10















                                          up vote
                                          2
                                          down vote













                                          One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.



                                          The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.



                                          firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.



                                          What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x



                                          the taylor series are:



                                          $$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
                                          e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$



                                          substituting in:



                                          $$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$



                                          Now there is a problem:



                                          we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
                                          but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1



                                          Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1



                                          which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.



                                          $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$






                                          share|cite|improve this answer





















                                          • Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
                                            – G Cab
                                            Nov 22 at 23:02










                                          • The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
                                            – G Cab
                                            Nov 22 at 23:10













                                          up vote
                                          2
                                          down vote










                                          up vote
                                          2
                                          down vote









                                          One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.



                                          The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.



                                          firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.



                                          What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x



                                          the taylor series are:



                                          $$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
                                          e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$



                                          substituting in:



                                          $$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$



                                          Now there is a problem:



                                          we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
                                          but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1



                                          Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1



                                          which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.



                                          $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$






                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                          One needs to keep in mind the point about which we are expanding.



                                          The question posed doesn't specify, but I guess we are talking about the taylor series about x=0.



                                          firstly, instead of computing the derivatives (which is rarely the best approach), you can note that the function is a composition of two functions. both of which you probably know the taylor series for.



                                          What one does (this is elementary, and if you don't know this by the time you are given the above question, you might need to go back to your textbook and revise...) is compute the taylor series of cos(x) about x=0 substitute it into the taylor series of e^x



                                          the taylor series are:



                                          $$ cos(x)=1-frac{x^2}{2!}+frac{x^4}{4!}+H.O.T. \
                                          e^x = 1 + () + frac{()^2}{2!}+frac{()^3}{3!}+H.O.T$$



                                          substituting in:



                                          $$ e^{cos(x)} = 1 + (1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)+ frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^2}{2!}+frac{(1-frac{x^2}{2!}+H.O.T.)^3}{3!}\+H.O.T$$



                                          Now there is a problem:



                                          we are expanding cos(x) about x = 0
                                          but, we are not expanding e^x about zero but rather about cos(0), which = 1



                                          Therefore you would have to use the formula for e^x about a, where a=1



                                          which is increasingly complicated and computationally heavy. The best way of approaching this problem would be to use the suggestion given by André Nicolas.



                                          $$e^{cos x}=ecdot e^{cos x-1}.$$







                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                          share|cite|improve this answer










                                          answered Sep 13 '14 at 21:31









                                          Jonathan Durrant

                                          211




                                          211












                                          • Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
                                            – G Cab
                                            Nov 22 at 23:02










                                          • The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
                                            – G Cab
                                            Nov 22 at 23:10


















                                          • Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
                                            – G Cab
                                            Nov 22 at 23:02










                                          • The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
                                            – G Cab
                                            Nov 22 at 23:10
















                                          Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
                                          – G Cab
                                          Nov 22 at 23:02




                                          Your concern is addressed to the wrong point. The expansion of $e^z$ around $z=0$ converges for all $z$, in particular for $-1 le =cos x le 1$.
                                          – G Cab
                                          Nov 22 at 23:02












                                          The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
                                          – G Cab
                                          Nov 22 at 23:10




                                          The real problem with your approach is that the higher terms from $e^z$, when replaced with $cos x$ still return the term of degree $0$: e.g. $(1-x^2/2!+..)^5/5!= 1/5!+..$ which has to be summed to give $e^1$
                                          – G Cab
                                          Nov 22 at 23:10


















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