Proving that $|x , g(y) - y , g(x)| leq C$ for $x,y in [-1,1]$, where $|g''(t)| leq C$











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Let $f : mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ given by $f(x,y) = x , g(y) - y , g(x)$, where $g:mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $g in C^2$, $g(0)=0$ and $|g''(x)| leq C $ $forall x in mathbb{R}$. I Want to prove:



a) If $(x,y) in [-1,1]times[-1,1]$ then $|f(x,y)| leq C$.



b) Evaluate $int^1_0 int^1_0 f(x,y) , dx , dy$.



For the b part i guess that a simple application of green theorem will solve it, the value will be in function of $g$.



But, for the a part I'm getting trouble.



I tried to use the mean value theorem for the derivative of $g$ and then obtain that $|g'(x)|leq$ sup $ g^{''}$ $|x|$ on $x in [-1,1]$ and then conclude $ |g'(x)| leq C$ either.



So, applying again to $f$ I would get $|f(x,y)|$ is less or equal to a multiple of $C$.










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  • Hint: How does $f$ change if you change $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = ax + g(x)$?
    – PhoemueX
    Nov 23 at 19:03










  • @PhoemueX, there is no change, but I still can't see for where it is going
    – Eduardo Silva
    Nov 23 at 19:20










  • I now also added an answer for part b)
    – PhoemueX
    Nov 28 at 10:48















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $f : mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ given by $f(x,y) = x , g(y) - y , g(x)$, where $g:mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $g in C^2$, $g(0)=0$ and $|g''(x)| leq C $ $forall x in mathbb{R}$. I Want to prove:



a) If $(x,y) in [-1,1]times[-1,1]$ then $|f(x,y)| leq C$.



b) Evaluate $int^1_0 int^1_0 f(x,y) , dx , dy$.



For the b part i guess that a simple application of green theorem will solve it, the value will be in function of $g$.



But, for the a part I'm getting trouble.



I tried to use the mean value theorem for the derivative of $g$ and then obtain that $|g'(x)|leq$ sup $ g^{''}$ $|x|$ on $x in [-1,1]$ and then conclude $ |g'(x)| leq C$ either.



So, applying again to $f$ I would get $|f(x,y)|$ is less or equal to a multiple of $C$.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Hint: How does $f$ change if you change $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = ax + g(x)$?
    – PhoemueX
    Nov 23 at 19:03










  • @PhoemueX, there is no change, but I still can't see for where it is going
    – Eduardo Silva
    Nov 23 at 19:20










  • I now also added an answer for part b)
    – PhoemueX
    Nov 28 at 10:48













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let $f : mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ given by $f(x,y) = x , g(y) - y , g(x)$, where $g:mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $g in C^2$, $g(0)=0$ and $|g''(x)| leq C $ $forall x in mathbb{R}$. I Want to prove:



a) If $(x,y) in [-1,1]times[-1,1]$ then $|f(x,y)| leq C$.



b) Evaluate $int^1_0 int^1_0 f(x,y) , dx , dy$.



For the b part i guess that a simple application of green theorem will solve it, the value will be in function of $g$.



But, for the a part I'm getting trouble.



I tried to use the mean value theorem for the derivative of $g$ and then obtain that $|g'(x)|leq$ sup $ g^{''}$ $|x|$ on $x in [-1,1]$ and then conclude $ |g'(x)| leq C$ either.



So, applying again to $f$ I would get $|f(x,y)|$ is less or equal to a multiple of $C$.










share|cite|improve this question















Let $f : mathbb{R}^2 rightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ given by $f(x,y) = x , g(y) - y , g(x)$, where $g:mathbb{R} rightarrow mathbb{R}$ such that $g in C^2$, $g(0)=0$ and $|g''(x)| leq C $ $forall x in mathbb{R}$. I Want to prove:



a) If $(x,y) in [-1,1]times[-1,1]$ then $|f(x,y)| leq C$.



b) Evaluate $int^1_0 int^1_0 f(x,y) , dx , dy$.



For the b part i guess that a simple application of green theorem will solve it, the value will be in function of $g$.



But, for the a part I'm getting trouble.



I tried to use the mean value theorem for the derivative of $g$ and then obtain that $|g'(x)|leq$ sup $ g^{''}$ $|x|$ on $x in [-1,1]$ and then conclude $ |g'(x)| leq C$ either.



So, applying again to $f$ I would get $|f(x,y)|$ is less or equal to a multiple of $C$.







calculus derivatives absolute-value






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edited Nov 28 at 10:48









PhoemueX

27.2k22455




27.2k22455










asked Nov 23 at 18:08









Eduardo Silva

68239




68239












  • Hint: How does $f$ change if you change $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = ax + g(x)$?
    – PhoemueX
    Nov 23 at 19:03










  • @PhoemueX, there is no change, but I still can't see for where it is going
    – Eduardo Silva
    Nov 23 at 19:20










  • I now also added an answer for part b)
    – PhoemueX
    Nov 28 at 10:48


















  • Hint: How does $f$ change if you change $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = ax + g(x)$?
    – PhoemueX
    Nov 23 at 19:03










  • @PhoemueX, there is no change, but I still can't see for where it is going
    – Eduardo Silva
    Nov 23 at 19:20










  • I now also added an answer for part b)
    – PhoemueX
    Nov 28 at 10:48
















Hint: How does $f$ change if you change $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = ax + g(x)$?
– PhoemueX
Nov 23 at 19:03




Hint: How does $f$ change if you change $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = ax + g(x)$?
– PhoemueX
Nov 23 at 19:03












@PhoemueX, there is no change, but I still can't see for where it is going
– Eduardo Silva
Nov 23 at 19:20




@PhoemueX, there is no change, but I still can't see for where it is going
– Eduardo Silva
Nov 23 at 19:20












I now also added an answer for part b)
– PhoemueX
Nov 28 at 10:48




I now also added an answer for part b)
– PhoemueX
Nov 28 at 10:48










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote













a) If we change from $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = g(x) + a x$ for any $a in Bbb{R}$, this does not change the function $f$. Also, we will still have $widetilde{g}(0) = 0$ and $|widetilde{g}''(x)| leq C$. Therefore, we can without loss of generality assume that $g'(0) = 0$.



Now, Taylor's theorem, with the Lagrange form of the remainder shows that for each $x in [-1,1]$, there is some $xi in [0,x] cup [x,0] subset [-1,1]$ satisfying
$$
g(x) = g(0) + g'(0) cdot x + frac{g''(xi)}{2} (x - 0)^2 , ,
$$

and hence $|g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} cdot x^2 leq frac{C}{2}$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



Now, we easily see
$$
|f(x,y)| leq |x| cdot |g(y)| + |y| cdot |g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} + frac{C}{2} = C
$$

for all $x,y in [-1,1]$.



Final comment: This is more or less what you were also trying to do (using the estimate for $g''$ to estimate $g'$, and then $g$). The main points was to see that one can assume $g'(x) = 0$. Finally, instead of using the mean-value theorem twice, we used Taylor's theorem, which got rid of the factor two that you would otherwise get if you naively apply the mean-value theorem.



b) This part of the question is actually pretty easy; one does not need anything fancy like Green's theorem. Simply note that if we set $a := int_0^1 t , d t$ (so that $a = 1/2$) and $b := int_0^1 g(t) , dt$, then
begin{align*}
int_0^1 int_0^1 f(x,y) , d x , d y
& = int_0^1 int_0^1 x , g(y) , d x , d y
- int_0^1 int_0^1 y , g(x) , d x , d y \
& = int_0^1 g(y) cdot a , d y
- int_0^1 y , b , d y \
& = a cdot b - a cdot b
= 0 , .
end{align*}






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    up vote
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    down vote













    a) If we change from $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = g(x) + a x$ for any $a in Bbb{R}$, this does not change the function $f$. Also, we will still have $widetilde{g}(0) = 0$ and $|widetilde{g}''(x)| leq C$. Therefore, we can without loss of generality assume that $g'(0) = 0$.



    Now, Taylor's theorem, with the Lagrange form of the remainder shows that for each $x in [-1,1]$, there is some $xi in [0,x] cup [x,0] subset [-1,1]$ satisfying
    $$
    g(x) = g(0) + g'(0) cdot x + frac{g''(xi)}{2} (x - 0)^2 , ,
    $$

    and hence $|g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} cdot x^2 leq frac{C}{2}$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



    Now, we easily see
    $$
    |f(x,y)| leq |x| cdot |g(y)| + |y| cdot |g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} + frac{C}{2} = C
    $$

    for all $x,y in [-1,1]$.



    Final comment: This is more or less what you were also trying to do (using the estimate for $g''$ to estimate $g'$, and then $g$). The main points was to see that one can assume $g'(x) = 0$. Finally, instead of using the mean-value theorem twice, we used Taylor's theorem, which got rid of the factor two that you would otherwise get if you naively apply the mean-value theorem.



    b) This part of the question is actually pretty easy; one does not need anything fancy like Green's theorem. Simply note that if we set $a := int_0^1 t , d t$ (so that $a = 1/2$) and $b := int_0^1 g(t) , dt$, then
    begin{align*}
    int_0^1 int_0^1 f(x,y) , d x , d y
    & = int_0^1 int_0^1 x , g(y) , d x , d y
    - int_0^1 int_0^1 y , g(x) , d x , d y \
    & = int_0^1 g(y) cdot a , d y
    - int_0^1 y , b , d y \
    & = a cdot b - a cdot b
    = 0 , .
    end{align*}






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      a) If we change from $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = g(x) + a x$ for any $a in Bbb{R}$, this does not change the function $f$. Also, we will still have $widetilde{g}(0) = 0$ and $|widetilde{g}''(x)| leq C$. Therefore, we can without loss of generality assume that $g'(0) = 0$.



      Now, Taylor's theorem, with the Lagrange form of the remainder shows that for each $x in [-1,1]$, there is some $xi in [0,x] cup [x,0] subset [-1,1]$ satisfying
      $$
      g(x) = g(0) + g'(0) cdot x + frac{g''(xi)}{2} (x - 0)^2 , ,
      $$

      and hence $|g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} cdot x^2 leq frac{C}{2}$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



      Now, we easily see
      $$
      |f(x,y)| leq |x| cdot |g(y)| + |y| cdot |g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} + frac{C}{2} = C
      $$

      for all $x,y in [-1,1]$.



      Final comment: This is more or less what you were also trying to do (using the estimate for $g''$ to estimate $g'$, and then $g$). The main points was to see that one can assume $g'(x) = 0$. Finally, instead of using the mean-value theorem twice, we used Taylor's theorem, which got rid of the factor two that you would otherwise get if you naively apply the mean-value theorem.



      b) This part of the question is actually pretty easy; one does not need anything fancy like Green's theorem. Simply note that if we set $a := int_0^1 t , d t$ (so that $a = 1/2$) and $b := int_0^1 g(t) , dt$, then
      begin{align*}
      int_0^1 int_0^1 f(x,y) , d x , d y
      & = int_0^1 int_0^1 x , g(y) , d x , d y
      - int_0^1 int_0^1 y , g(x) , d x , d y \
      & = int_0^1 g(y) cdot a , d y
      - int_0^1 y , b , d y \
      & = a cdot b - a cdot b
      = 0 , .
      end{align*}






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        a) If we change from $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = g(x) + a x$ for any $a in Bbb{R}$, this does not change the function $f$. Also, we will still have $widetilde{g}(0) = 0$ and $|widetilde{g}''(x)| leq C$. Therefore, we can without loss of generality assume that $g'(0) = 0$.



        Now, Taylor's theorem, with the Lagrange form of the remainder shows that for each $x in [-1,1]$, there is some $xi in [0,x] cup [x,0] subset [-1,1]$ satisfying
        $$
        g(x) = g(0) + g'(0) cdot x + frac{g''(xi)}{2} (x - 0)^2 , ,
        $$

        and hence $|g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} cdot x^2 leq frac{C}{2}$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



        Now, we easily see
        $$
        |f(x,y)| leq |x| cdot |g(y)| + |y| cdot |g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} + frac{C}{2} = C
        $$

        for all $x,y in [-1,1]$.



        Final comment: This is more or less what you were also trying to do (using the estimate for $g''$ to estimate $g'$, and then $g$). The main points was to see that one can assume $g'(x) = 0$. Finally, instead of using the mean-value theorem twice, we used Taylor's theorem, which got rid of the factor two that you would otherwise get if you naively apply the mean-value theorem.



        b) This part of the question is actually pretty easy; one does not need anything fancy like Green's theorem. Simply note that if we set $a := int_0^1 t , d t$ (so that $a = 1/2$) and $b := int_0^1 g(t) , dt$, then
        begin{align*}
        int_0^1 int_0^1 f(x,y) , d x , d y
        & = int_0^1 int_0^1 x , g(y) , d x , d y
        - int_0^1 int_0^1 y , g(x) , d x , d y \
        & = int_0^1 g(y) cdot a , d y
        - int_0^1 y , b , d y \
        & = a cdot b - a cdot b
        = 0 , .
        end{align*}






        share|cite|improve this answer














        a) If we change from $g$ to $widetilde{g}(x) = g(x) + a x$ for any $a in Bbb{R}$, this does not change the function $f$. Also, we will still have $widetilde{g}(0) = 0$ and $|widetilde{g}''(x)| leq C$. Therefore, we can without loss of generality assume that $g'(0) = 0$.



        Now, Taylor's theorem, with the Lagrange form of the remainder shows that for each $x in [-1,1]$, there is some $xi in [0,x] cup [x,0] subset [-1,1]$ satisfying
        $$
        g(x) = g(0) + g'(0) cdot x + frac{g''(xi)}{2} (x - 0)^2 , ,
        $$

        and hence $|g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} cdot x^2 leq frac{C}{2}$ for all $x in [-1,1]$.



        Now, we easily see
        $$
        |f(x,y)| leq |x| cdot |g(y)| + |y| cdot |g(x)| leq frac{C}{2} + frac{C}{2} = C
        $$

        for all $x,y in [-1,1]$.



        Final comment: This is more or less what you were also trying to do (using the estimate for $g''$ to estimate $g'$, and then $g$). The main points was to see that one can assume $g'(x) = 0$. Finally, instead of using the mean-value theorem twice, we used Taylor's theorem, which got rid of the factor two that you would otherwise get if you naively apply the mean-value theorem.



        b) This part of the question is actually pretty easy; one does not need anything fancy like Green's theorem. Simply note that if we set $a := int_0^1 t , d t$ (so that $a = 1/2$) and $b := int_0^1 g(t) , dt$, then
        begin{align*}
        int_0^1 int_0^1 f(x,y) , d x , d y
        & = int_0^1 int_0^1 x , g(y) , d x , d y
        - int_0^1 int_0^1 y , g(x) , d x , d y \
        & = int_0^1 g(y) cdot a , d y
        - int_0^1 y , b , d y \
        & = a cdot b - a cdot b
        = 0 , .
        end{align*}







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 28 at 10:44

























        answered Nov 25 at 18:17









        PhoemueX

        27.2k22455




        27.2k22455






























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