Irrationality of $sqrt{15}$












16












$begingroup$


Could someone verify the correctness of this proof for the irrationality of $sqrt{15}$?



Assume $sqrt{15}inmathbf{Q}$, then $sqrt{15}=frac{p}{q}$ with $p,qinmathbf{Z}$ ($qne0$ and $gcd(p,q)=1$).
$implies 15q^2=p^2 implies 15mid p^2 implies 3mid p^2 implies 3mid p$ (Euclid's Lemma)



Now we write $p=3k$ for $kinmathbf{Z}$, then we have $15q^2=9k^2 implies 5q^2=3k^2 implies 3mid 5q^2$. Since $gcd(3,5)=1$ (this lemma: if $amid bc$ and $gcd(a,b)=1$ then $amid c$) this gives $3mid q^2 implies 3mid q$ (Euclid's Lemma).



Therefore $3mid p$ and $3mid q$. Contradiction.










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$endgroup$








  • 7




    $begingroup$
    That's a great proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:18






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    looks correct to me well done
    $endgroup$
    – Isham
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:34






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Agreed and well explained
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:53






  • 7




    $begingroup$
    Looks good. One comment though, when writing "Contradiction." it's good to mention what the contradiction is, in this case "Contradiction with $gcd(p,q)=1$"
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Oct 25 '17 at 18:12
















16












$begingroup$


Could someone verify the correctness of this proof for the irrationality of $sqrt{15}$?



Assume $sqrt{15}inmathbf{Q}$, then $sqrt{15}=frac{p}{q}$ with $p,qinmathbf{Z}$ ($qne0$ and $gcd(p,q)=1$).
$implies 15q^2=p^2 implies 15mid p^2 implies 3mid p^2 implies 3mid p$ (Euclid's Lemma)



Now we write $p=3k$ for $kinmathbf{Z}$, then we have $15q^2=9k^2 implies 5q^2=3k^2 implies 3mid 5q^2$. Since $gcd(3,5)=1$ (this lemma: if $amid bc$ and $gcd(a,b)=1$ then $amid c$) this gives $3mid q^2 implies 3mid q$ (Euclid's Lemma).



Therefore $3mid p$ and $3mid q$. Contradiction.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 7




    $begingroup$
    That's a great proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:18






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    looks correct to me well done
    $endgroup$
    – Isham
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:34






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Agreed and well explained
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:53






  • 7




    $begingroup$
    Looks good. One comment though, when writing "Contradiction." it's good to mention what the contradiction is, in this case "Contradiction with $gcd(p,q)=1$"
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Oct 25 '17 at 18:12














16












16








16


3



$begingroup$


Could someone verify the correctness of this proof for the irrationality of $sqrt{15}$?



Assume $sqrt{15}inmathbf{Q}$, then $sqrt{15}=frac{p}{q}$ with $p,qinmathbf{Z}$ ($qne0$ and $gcd(p,q)=1$).
$implies 15q^2=p^2 implies 15mid p^2 implies 3mid p^2 implies 3mid p$ (Euclid's Lemma)



Now we write $p=3k$ for $kinmathbf{Z}$, then we have $15q^2=9k^2 implies 5q^2=3k^2 implies 3mid 5q^2$. Since $gcd(3,5)=1$ (this lemma: if $amid bc$ and $gcd(a,b)=1$ then $amid c$) this gives $3mid q^2 implies 3mid q$ (Euclid's Lemma).



Therefore $3mid p$ and $3mid q$. Contradiction.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Could someone verify the correctness of this proof for the irrationality of $sqrt{15}$?



Assume $sqrt{15}inmathbf{Q}$, then $sqrt{15}=frac{p}{q}$ with $p,qinmathbf{Z}$ ($qne0$ and $gcd(p,q)=1$).
$implies 15q^2=p^2 implies 15mid p^2 implies 3mid p^2 implies 3mid p$ (Euclid's Lemma)



Now we write $p=3k$ for $kinmathbf{Z}$, then we have $15q^2=9k^2 implies 5q^2=3k^2 implies 3mid 5q^2$. Since $gcd(3,5)=1$ (this lemma: if $amid bc$ and $gcd(a,b)=1$ then $amid c$) this gives $3mid q^2 implies 3mid q$ (Euclid's Lemma).



Therefore $3mid p$ and $3mid q$. Contradiction.







number-theory proof-verification irrational-numbers






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Oct 25 '17 at 16:34









Rodrigo de Azevedo

12.9k41856




12.9k41856










asked Oct 25 '17 at 16:15









Heinz DoofenschmirtzHeinz Doofenschmirtz

602620




602620








  • 7




    $begingroup$
    That's a great proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:18






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    looks correct to me well done
    $endgroup$
    – Isham
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:34






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Agreed and well explained
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:53






  • 7




    $begingroup$
    Looks good. One comment though, when writing "Contradiction." it's good to mention what the contradiction is, in this case "Contradiction with $gcd(p,q)=1$"
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Oct 25 '17 at 18:12














  • 7




    $begingroup$
    That's a great proof.
    $endgroup$
    – Yanko
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:18






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    looks correct to me well done
    $endgroup$
    – Isham
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:34






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Agreed and well explained
    $endgroup$
    – imranfat
    Oct 25 '17 at 16:53






  • 7




    $begingroup$
    Looks good. One comment though, when writing "Contradiction." it's good to mention what the contradiction is, in this case "Contradiction with $gcd(p,q)=1$"
    $endgroup$
    – rtybase
    Oct 25 '17 at 18:12








7




7




$begingroup$
That's a great proof.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Oct 25 '17 at 16:18




$begingroup$
That's a great proof.
$endgroup$
– Yanko
Oct 25 '17 at 16:18




2




2




$begingroup$
looks correct to me well done
$endgroup$
– Isham
Oct 25 '17 at 16:34




$begingroup$
looks correct to me well done
$endgroup$
– Isham
Oct 25 '17 at 16:34




2




2




$begingroup$
Agreed and well explained
$endgroup$
– imranfat
Oct 25 '17 at 16:53




$begingroup$
Agreed and well explained
$endgroup$
– imranfat
Oct 25 '17 at 16:53




7




7




$begingroup$
Looks good. One comment though, when writing "Contradiction." it's good to mention what the contradiction is, in this case "Contradiction with $gcd(p,q)=1$"
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Oct 25 '17 at 18:12




$begingroup$
Looks good. One comment though, when writing "Contradiction." it's good to mention what the contradiction is, in this case "Contradiction with $gcd(p,q)=1$"
$endgroup$
– rtybase
Oct 25 '17 at 18:12










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$begingroup$

I like your proof. As a further observation, you could show that your proof generalizes: you could have replaced $15$ with any product $p_0 r$ where $p_0$ is prime and $r$ is relatively prime to $p_0$.
So you have really proven the following:




Proposition. Let $n$ be an integer and let $p_0$ be a prime number such that $p_0$ divides into $n$ exactly once (that is, $p_0$ divides $n$ but $p_0^2$ does not divide $n$). Then $sqrt{n}$ is irrational.







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    $begingroup$

    I like your proof. As a further observation, you could show that your proof generalizes: you could have replaced $15$ with any product $p_0 r$ where $p_0$ is prime and $r$ is relatively prime to $p_0$.
    So you have really proven the following:




    Proposition. Let $n$ be an integer and let $p_0$ be a prime number such that $p_0$ divides into $n$ exactly once (that is, $p_0$ divides $n$ but $p_0^2$ does not divide $n$). Then $sqrt{n}$ is irrational.







    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      I like your proof. As a further observation, you could show that your proof generalizes: you could have replaced $15$ with any product $p_0 r$ where $p_0$ is prime and $r$ is relatively prime to $p_0$.
      So you have really proven the following:




      Proposition. Let $n$ be an integer and let $p_0$ be a prime number such that $p_0$ divides into $n$ exactly once (that is, $p_0$ divides $n$ but $p_0^2$ does not divide $n$). Then $sqrt{n}$ is irrational.







      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        I like your proof. As a further observation, you could show that your proof generalizes: you could have replaced $15$ with any product $p_0 r$ where $p_0$ is prime and $r$ is relatively prime to $p_0$.
        So you have really proven the following:




        Proposition. Let $n$ be an integer and let $p_0$ be a prime number such that $p_0$ divides into $n$ exactly once (that is, $p_0$ divides $n$ but $p_0^2$ does not divide $n$). Then $sqrt{n}$ is irrational.







        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        I like your proof. As a further observation, you could show that your proof generalizes: you could have replaced $15$ with any product $p_0 r$ where $p_0$ is prime and $r$ is relatively prime to $p_0$.
        So you have really proven the following:




        Proposition. Let $n$ be an integer and let $p_0$ be a prime number such that $p_0$ divides into $n$ exactly once (that is, $p_0$ divides $n$ but $p_0^2$ does not divide $n$). Then $sqrt{n}$ is irrational.








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        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 7 '18 at 18:13









        60056005

        36.1k751125




        36.1k751125






























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