Poisson Distribution of sum of two random independent variables $X$, $Y$












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$X sim mathcal{P}( lambda) $ and $Y sim mathcal{P}( mu)$ meaning that $X$ and $Y$ are Poisson distributions. What is the probability distribution law of $X + Y$. I know it is $X+Y sim mathcal{P}( lambda + mu)$ but I don't understand how to derive it.










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  • $begingroup$
    Try using the method of moment generating functions :)
    $endgroup$
    – Samuel Reid
    Nov 25 '13 at 7:03










  • $begingroup$
    All I've learned in the definition of a Poisson Random Variable, is there a simpler way?
    $endgroup$
    – user82004
    Nov 25 '13 at 7:07






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If they are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Nov 25 '13 at 8:14










  • $begingroup$
    Doesn’t it suffice that their covariance vanishes?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Feb 1 '18 at 7:09
















40












$begingroup$


$X sim mathcal{P}( lambda) $ and $Y sim mathcal{P}( mu)$ meaning that $X$ and $Y$ are Poisson distributions. What is the probability distribution law of $X + Y$. I know it is $X+Y sim mathcal{P}( lambda + mu)$ but I don't understand how to derive it.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Try using the method of moment generating functions :)
    $endgroup$
    – Samuel Reid
    Nov 25 '13 at 7:03










  • $begingroup$
    All I've learned in the definition of a Poisson Random Variable, is there a simpler way?
    $endgroup$
    – user82004
    Nov 25 '13 at 7:07






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If they are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Nov 25 '13 at 8:14










  • $begingroup$
    Doesn’t it suffice that their covariance vanishes?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Feb 1 '18 at 7:09














40












40








40


19



$begingroup$


$X sim mathcal{P}( lambda) $ and $Y sim mathcal{P}( mu)$ meaning that $X$ and $Y$ are Poisson distributions. What is the probability distribution law of $X + Y$. I know it is $X+Y sim mathcal{P}( lambda + mu)$ but I don't understand how to derive it.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$X sim mathcal{P}( lambda) $ and $Y sim mathcal{P}( mu)$ meaning that $X$ and $Y$ are Poisson distributions. What is the probability distribution law of $X + Y$. I know it is $X+Y sim mathcal{P}( lambda + mu)$ but I don't understand how to derive it.







probability probability-theory probability-distributions






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edited Feb 13 '13 at 6:18









Stefan Hansen

20.8k73764




20.8k73764










asked Oct 25 '12 at 20:00







user31280



















  • $begingroup$
    Try using the method of moment generating functions :)
    $endgroup$
    – Samuel Reid
    Nov 25 '13 at 7:03










  • $begingroup$
    All I've learned in the definition of a Poisson Random Variable, is there a simpler way?
    $endgroup$
    – user82004
    Nov 25 '13 at 7:07






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If they are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Nov 25 '13 at 8:14










  • $begingroup$
    Doesn’t it suffice that their covariance vanishes?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Feb 1 '18 at 7:09


















  • $begingroup$
    Try using the method of moment generating functions :)
    $endgroup$
    – Samuel Reid
    Nov 25 '13 at 7:03










  • $begingroup$
    All I've learned in the definition of a Poisson Random Variable, is there a simpler way?
    $endgroup$
    – user82004
    Nov 25 '13 at 7:07






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    If they are independent.
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Nov 25 '13 at 8:14










  • $begingroup$
    Doesn’t it suffice that their covariance vanishes?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Hoppe
    Feb 1 '18 at 7:09
















$begingroup$
Try using the method of moment generating functions :)
$endgroup$
– Samuel Reid
Nov 25 '13 at 7:03




$begingroup$
Try using the method of moment generating functions :)
$endgroup$
– Samuel Reid
Nov 25 '13 at 7:03












$begingroup$
All I've learned in the definition of a Poisson Random Variable, is there a simpler way?
$endgroup$
– user82004
Nov 25 '13 at 7:07




$begingroup$
All I've learned in the definition of a Poisson Random Variable, is there a simpler way?
$endgroup$
– user82004
Nov 25 '13 at 7:07




4




4




$begingroup$
If they are independent.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 25 '13 at 8:14




$begingroup$
If they are independent.
$endgroup$
– Did
Nov 25 '13 at 8:14












$begingroup$
Doesn’t it suffice that their covariance vanishes?
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Feb 1 '18 at 7:09




$begingroup$
Doesn’t it suffice that their covariance vanishes?
$endgroup$
– Michael Hoppe
Feb 1 '18 at 7:09










7 Answers
7






active

oldest

votes


















74












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This only holds if $X$ and $Y$ are independent, so we suppose this from now on. We have for $k ge 0$:
begin{align*}
P(X+ Y =k) &= sum_{i = 0}^k P(X+ Y = k, X = i)\
&= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i , X =i)\
&= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i)P(X=i)\
&= sum_{i=0}^k e^{-mu}frac{mu^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}e^{-lambda}frac{lambda^i}{i!}\
&= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k frac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}mu^{k-i}lambda^i\
&= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k binom kimu^{k-i}lambda^i\
&= frac{(mu + lambda)^k}{k!} cdot e^{-(mu + lambda)}
end{align*}
Hence, $X+ Y sim mathcal P(mu + lambda)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you! but what happens if they are not independent?
    $endgroup$
    – user31280
    Oct 25 '12 at 20:20






  • 8




    $begingroup$
    In general we can't say anything then. It depends on how they depend on another.
    $endgroup$
    – martini
    Oct 25 '12 at 20:22






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thank you! it's very simple and I feel like a complete idiot.
    $endgroup$
    – user31280
    Oct 25 '12 at 20:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Nice derivation: specifically the transformation of (a) the i/k factorials and (b) the mu/lambda polynomials into the binomial form of the polynomial power expression.
    $endgroup$
    – javadba
    Aug 30 '14 at 20:59








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @LiorA Yes. k! included to combine with the rest and simplify as intended, so 1/k! is included to compensate.
    $endgroup$
    – Rolazaro Azeveires
    Jan 7 '18 at 14:23



















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Another approach is to use characteristic functions. If $Xsim mathrm{po}(lambda)$, then the characteristic function of $X$ is (if this is unknown, just calculate it)
$$
varphi_X(t)=E[e^{itX}]=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
$$
Now suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are independent Poisson distributed random variables with parameters $lambda$ and $mu$ respectively. Then due to the independence we have that
$$
varphi_{X+Y}(t)=varphi_X(t)varphi_Y(t)=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)}e^{mu(e^{it}-1)}=e^{(mu+lambda)(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
$$
As the characteristic function completely determines the distribution, we conclude that $X+Ysimmathrm{po}(lambda+mu)$.






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    7












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    You can use Probability Generating Function(P.G.F). As poisson distribution is a discrete probability distribution, P.G.F. fits better in this case.For independent X and Y random variable which follows distribution Po($lambda$) and Po($mu$).
    P.G.F of X is
    begin{equation*}
    begin{split}
    P_X[t] = E[t^X]&= sum_{x=0}^{infty}t^xe^{-lambda}frac{lambda^x}{x!}\
    &=sum_{x=0}^{infty}e^{-lambda}frac{(lambda t)^x}{x!}\
    &=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda t}\
    &=e^{-lambda (1-t)}\
    end{split}
    end{equation*}
    P.G.F of Y is
    begin{equation*}
    begin{split}
    P_Y[t] = E[t^Y]&= sum_{y=0}^{infty}t^ye^{-mu}frac{mu^y}{y!}\
    &=sum_{y=0}^{infty}e^{-mu}frac{(mu t)^y}{y!}\
    &=e^{-mu}e^{mu t}\
    &=e^{-mu (1-t)}\
    end{split}
    end{equation*}



    Now think about P.G.F of U = X+Y.
    As X and Y are independent,
    begin{equation*}
    begin{split}
    P_U(t)=P_{X+Y}(t)=P_X(t)P_Y(t)=E[t^{X+Y}]=E[t^X t^Y]&= E[t^X]E[t^Y]\
    &= e^{-lambda (1-t)}e^{-mu (1-t)}\
    &= e^{-(lambda+mu) (1-t)}\
    end{split}
    end{equation*}



    Now this is the P.G.F of $Po(lambda + mu)$ distribution. Therefore,we can say U=X+Y follows Po($lambda+mu$)






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      4












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      In short, you can show this by using the fact that $$Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(X+Y=k, X=i).$$



      If $X$ and $Y$ are independent, this is equal to
      $$
      Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(Y=k-i)Pr(X=i)
      $$
      which is
      $$
      begin{align}
      Pr(X+Y=k)&=sum_{i=0}^kfrac{e^{-lambda_y}lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{e^{-lambda_x}lambda_x^i}{i!}\
      &=e^{-lambda_y}e^{-lambda_x}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{lambda_x^i}{i!}\
      &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i\
      &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i
      end{align}
      $$
      The sum part is just
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i=(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
      $$
      by the binomial theorem.
      So the end result is
      $$
      begin{align}
      Pr(X+Y=k)&=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
      end{align}
      $$
      which is the pmf of $Po(lambda_y+lambda_x)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Moderator notice: This answer was moved here as a consequence of merging two questions. This explains the small differences in notation. The OP's $lambda$ is $lambda_x$ here, and OP's $mu$ is $lambda_y$. Otherwise there is no difference.
        $endgroup$
        – Jyrki Lahtonen
        Apr 23 '15 at 6:55





















      2












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      Using Moment Generating Function.



      If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, $Y sim mathcal{P}(mu)$ and S=X+Y.

      We know that MGF(Moment Generating Function) of $mathcal{P}(lambda)=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}$(See the end if you need proof)

      MGF of S would be
      $$begin{align}
      M_S(t)&=E[e^{tS}]\&=E[e^{t(X+Y)}]\&=E[e^{tX}e^{tY}]\&=E[e^{tX}]E[e^{tY}]quad text{given }X,Ytext{ are independent}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}e^{mu(e^t-1)}\&=e^{(lambda+mu)(e^t-1)}
      end{align}$$

      Thus S is a Poisson Distribution with parameter $lambda+mu$.





      MGF of Poisson Distribution



      If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, then by definition Probability Mass Function is

      $$begin{align}
      f_X(k)=frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda},quad k in 0,1,2....
      end{align}$$
      It's MGF is
      $$begin{align}
      M_X(t)&=E[e^{tX}]\&=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda}e^{tk}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^ke^{tk}}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(lambda e^t)^k}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda e^t}\&=e^{lambda e^t-lambda}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}
      end{align}$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











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        1












        $begingroup$

        hint: $sum_{k=0}^{n} P(X = k)P(Y = n-k)$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













        • $begingroup$
          why this hint, why the sum? This is what I don't understand
          $endgroup$
          – user31280
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:22










        • $begingroup$
          adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables. That's why.
          $endgroup$
          – jay-sun
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:24










        • $begingroup$
          gotcha! Thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – user31280
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:31










        • $begingroup$
          adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables... Sorry but no.
          $endgroup$
          – Did
          Feb 13 '13 at 6:28






        • 1




          $begingroup$
          There is no usual sense for convolution of random variables. Either convolution of distributions or addition of random variables.
          $endgroup$
          – Did
          Feb 13 '13 at 6:51



















        0












        $begingroup$

        Here's a much cleaner solution:



        Consider a two Poisson processes occuring with rates $lambda$ and $mu$, where a Poisson process of rate $r$ is viewed as the limit of $n$ consecutive Bernoulli trials each with probability $frac{r}{n}$, as $ntoinfty$.



        Then $X$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $lambda$ and $Y$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $mu$, so the total number of successes is the same as if we had each trial succeed with probability $frac{lambda + mu}{n}$, where we take $n$ to be large enough so that the event where the $i$th Bernoulli trial in both processes are successdul has a negligible probability.
        Then we are done.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$













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          7 Answers
          7






          active

          oldest

          votes








          7 Answers
          7






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          74












          $begingroup$

          This only holds if $X$ and $Y$ are independent, so we suppose this from now on. We have for $k ge 0$:
          begin{align*}
          P(X+ Y =k) &= sum_{i = 0}^k P(X+ Y = k, X = i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i , X =i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i)P(X=i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k e^{-mu}frac{mu^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}e^{-lambda}frac{lambda^i}{i!}\
          &= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k frac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}mu^{k-i}lambda^i\
          &= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k binom kimu^{k-i}lambda^i\
          &= frac{(mu + lambda)^k}{k!} cdot e^{-(mu + lambda)}
          end{align*}
          Hence, $X+ Y sim mathcal P(mu + lambda)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you! but what happens if they are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – user31280
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:20






          • 8




            $begingroup$
            In general we can't say anything then. It depends on how they depend on another.
            $endgroup$
            – martini
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you! it's very simple and I feel like a complete idiot.
            $endgroup$
            – user31280
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice derivation: specifically the transformation of (a) the i/k factorials and (b) the mu/lambda polynomials into the binomial form of the polynomial power expression.
            $endgroup$
            – javadba
            Aug 30 '14 at 20:59








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @LiorA Yes. k! included to combine with the rest and simplify as intended, so 1/k! is included to compensate.
            $endgroup$
            – Rolazaro Azeveires
            Jan 7 '18 at 14:23
















          74












          $begingroup$

          This only holds if $X$ and $Y$ are independent, so we suppose this from now on. We have for $k ge 0$:
          begin{align*}
          P(X+ Y =k) &= sum_{i = 0}^k P(X+ Y = k, X = i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i , X =i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i)P(X=i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k e^{-mu}frac{mu^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}e^{-lambda}frac{lambda^i}{i!}\
          &= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k frac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}mu^{k-i}lambda^i\
          &= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k binom kimu^{k-i}lambda^i\
          &= frac{(mu + lambda)^k}{k!} cdot e^{-(mu + lambda)}
          end{align*}
          Hence, $X+ Y sim mathcal P(mu + lambda)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you! but what happens if they are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – user31280
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:20






          • 8




            $begingroup$
            In general we can't say anything then. It depends on how they depend on another.
            $endgroup$
            – martini
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you! it's very simple and I feel like a complete idiot.
            $endgroup$
            – user31280
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice derivation: specifically the transformation of (a) the i/k factorials and (b) the mu/lambda polynomials into the binomial form of the polynomial power expression.
            $endgroup$
            – javadba
            Aug 30 '14 at 20:59








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @LiorA Yes. k! included to combine with the rest and simplify as intended, so 1/k! is included to compensate.
            $endgroup$
            – Rolazaro Azeveires
            Jan 7 '18 at 14:23














          74












          74








          74





          $begingroup$

          This only holds if $X$ and $Y$ are independent, so we suppose this from now on. We have for $k ge 0$:
          begin{align*}
          P(X+ Y =k) &= sum_{i = 0}^k P(X+ Y = k, X = i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i , X =i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i)P(X=i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k e^{-mu}frac{mu^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}e^{-lambda}frac{lambda^i}{i!}\
          &= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k frac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}mu^{k-i}lambda^i\
          &= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k binom kimu^{k-i}lambda^i\
          &= frac{(mu + lambda)^k}{k!} cdot e^{-(mu + lambda)}
          end{align*}
          Hence, $X+ Y sim mathcal P(mu + lambda)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          This only holds if $X$ and $Y$ are independent, so we suppose this from now on. We have for $k ge 0$:
          begin{align*}
          P(X+ Y =k) &= sum_{i = 0}^k P(X+ Y = k, X = i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i , X =i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k P(Y = k-i)P(X=i)\
          &= sum_{i=0}^k e^{-mu}frac{mu^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}e^{-lambda}frac{lambda^i}{i!}\
          &= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k frac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}mu^{k-i}lambda^i\
          &= e^{-(mu + lambda)}frac 1{k!}sum_{i=0}^k binom kimu^{k-i}lambda^i\
          &= frac{(mu + lambda)^k}{k!} cdot e^{-(mu + lambda)}
          end{align*}
          Hence, $X+ Y sim mathcal P(mu + lambda)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Oct 25 '12 at 20:19









          martinimartini

          70.5k45991




          70.5k45991








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you! but what happens if they are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – user31280
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:20






          • 8




            $begingroup$
            In general we can't say anything then. It depends on how they depend on another.
            $endgroup$
            – martini
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you! it's very simple and I feel like a complete idiot.
            $endgroup$
            – user31280
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice derivation: specifically the transformation of (a) the i/k factorials and (b) the mu/lambda polynomials into the binomial form of the polynomial power expression.
            $endgroup$
            – javadba
            Aug 30 '14 at 20:59








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @LiorA Yes. k! included to combine with the rest and simplify as intended, so 1/k! is included to compensate.
            $endgroup$
            – Rolazaro Azeveires
            Jan 7 '18 at 14:23














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you! but what happens if they are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – user31280
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:20






          • 8




            $begingroup$
            In general we can't say anything then. It depends on how they depend on another.
            $endgroup$
            – martini
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:22






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Thank you! it's very simple and I feel like a complete idiot.
            $endgroup$
            – user31280
            Oct 25 '12 at 20:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice derivation: specifically the transformation of (a) the i/k factorials and (b) the mu/lambda polynomials into the binomial form of the polynomial power expression.
            $endgroup$
            – javadba
            Aug 30 '14 at 20:59








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @LiorA Yes. k! included to combine with the rest and simplify as intended, so 1/k! is included to compensate.
            $endgroup$
            – Rolazaro Azeveires
            Jan 7 '18 at 14:23








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Thank you! but what happens if they are not independent?
          $endgroup$
          – user31280
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:20




          $begingroup$
          Thank you! but what happens if they are not independent?
          $endgroup$
          – user31280
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:20




          8




          8




          $begingroup$
          In general we can't say anything then. It depends on how they depend on another.
          $endgroup$
          – martini
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:22




          $begingroup$
          In general we can't say anything then. It depends on how they depend on another.
          $endgroup$
          – martini
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:22




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Thank you! it's very simple and I feel like a complete idiot.
          $endgroup$
          – user31280
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:40




          $begingroup$
          Thank you! it's very simple and I feel like a complete idiot.
          $endgroup$
          – user31280
          Oct 25 '12 at 20:40




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Nice derivation: specifically the transformation of (a) the i/k factorials and (b) the mu/lambda polynomials into the binomial form of the polynomial power expression.
          $endgroup$
          – javadba
          Aug 30 '14 at 20:59






          $begingroup$
          Nice derivation: specifically the transformation of (a) the i/k factorials and (b) the mu/lambda polynomials into the binomial form of the polynomial power expression.
          $endgroup$
          – javadba
          Aug 30 '14 at 20:59






          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @LiorA Yes. k! included to combine with the rest and simplify as intended, so 1/k! is included to compensate.
          $endgroup$
          – Rolazaro Azeveires
          Jan 7 '18 at 14:23




          $begingroup$
          @LiorA Yes. k! included to combine with the rest and simplify as intended, so 1/k! is included to compensate.
          $endgroup$
          – Rolazaro Azeveires
          Jan 7 '18 at 14:23











          17












          $begingroup$

          Another approach is to use characteristic functions. If $Xsim mathrm{po}(lambda)$, then the characteristic function of $X$ is (if this is unknown, just calculate it)
          $$
          varphi_X(t)=E[e^{itX}]=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
          $$
          Now suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are independent Poisson distributed random variables with parameters $lambda$ and $mu$ respectively. Then due to the independence we have that
          $$
          varphi_{X+Y}(t)=varphi_X(t)varphi_Y(t)=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)}e^{mu(e^{it}-1)}=e^{(mu+lambda)(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
          $$
          As the characteristic function completely determines the distribution, we conclude that $X+Ysimmathrm{po}(lambda+mu)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$


















            17












            $begingroup$

            Another approach is to use characteristic functions. If $Xsim mathrm{po}(lambda)$, then the characteristic function of $X$ is (if this is unknown, just calculate it)
            $$
            varphi_X(t)=E[e^{itX}]=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
            $$
            Now suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are independent Poisson distributed random variables with parameters $lambda$ and $mu$ respectively. Then due to the independence we have that
            $$
            varphi_{X+Y}(t)=varphi_X(t)varphi_Y(t)=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)}e^{mu(e^{it}-1)}=e^{(mu+lambda)(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
            $$
            As the characteristic function completely determines the distribution, we conclude that $X+Ysimmathrm{po}(lambda+mu)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$
















              17












              17








              17





              $begingroup$

              Another approach is to use characteristic functions. If $Xsim mathrm{po}(lambda)$, then the characteristic function of $X$ is (if this is unknown, just calculate it)
              $$
              varphi_X(t)=E[e^{itX}]=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
              $$
              Now suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are independent Poisson distributed random variables with parameters $lambda$ and $mu$ respectively. Then due to the independence we have that
              $$
              varphi_{X+Y}(t)=varphi_X(t)varphi_Y(t)=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)}e^{mu(e^{it}-1)}=e^{(mu+lambda)(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
              $$
              As the characteristic function completely determines the distribution, we conclude that $X+Ysimmathrm{po}(lambda+mu)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              Another approach is to use characteristic functions. If $Xsim mathrm{po}(lambda)$, then the characteristic function of $X$ is (if this is unknown, just calculate it)
              $$
              varphi_X(t)=E[e^{itX}]=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
              $$
              Now suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are independent Poisson distributed random variables with parameters $lambda$ and $mu$ respectively. Then due to the independence we have that
              $$
              varphi_{X+Y}(t)=varphi_X(t)varphi_Y(t)=e^{lambda(e^{it}-1)}e^{mu(e^{it}-1)}=e^{(mu+lambda)(e^{it}-1)},quad tinmathbb{R}.
              $$
              As the characteristic function completely determines the distribution, we conclude that $X+Ysimmathrm{po}(lambda+mu)$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Feb 13 '13 at 6:23









              Stefan HansenStefan Hansen

              20.8k73764




              20.8k73764























                  7












                  $begingroup$

                  You can use Probability Generating Function(P.G.F). As poisson distribution is a discrete probability distribution, P.G.F. fits better in this case.For independent X and Y random variable which follows distribution Po($lambda$) and Po($mu$).
                  P.G.F of X is
                  begin{equation*}
                  begin{split}
                  P_X[t] = E[t^X]&= sum_{x=0}^{infty}t^xe^{-lambda}frac{lambda^x}{x!}\
                  &=sum_{x=0}^{infty}e^{-lambda}frac{(lambda t)^x}{x!}\
                  &=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda t}\
                  &=e^{-lambda (1-t)}\
                  end{split}
                  end{equation*}
                  P.G.F of Y is
                  begin{equation*}
                  begin{split}
                  P_Y[t] = E[t^Y]&= sum_{y=0}^{infty}t^ye^{-mu}frac{mu^y}{y!}\
                  &=sum_{y=0}^{infty}e^{-mu}frac{(mu t)^y}{y!}\
                  &=e^{-mu}e^{mu t}\
                  &=e^{-mu (1-t)}\
                  end{split}
                  end{equation*}



                  Now think about P.G.F of U = X+Y.
                  As X and Y are independent,
                  begin{equation*}
                  begin{split}
                  P_U(t)=P_{X+Y}(t)=P_X(t)P_Y(t)=E[t^{X+Y}]=E[t^X t^Y]&= E[t^X]E[t^Y]\
                  &= e^{-lambda (1-t)}e^{-mu (1-t)}\
                  &= e^{-(lambda+mu) (1-t)}\
                  end{split}
                  end{equation*}



                  Now this is the P.G.F of $Po(lambda + mu)$ distribution. Therefore,we can say U=X+Y follows Po($lambda+mu$)






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$


















                    7












                    $begingroup$

                    You can use Probability Generating Function(P.G.F). As poisson distribution is a discrete probability distribution, P.G.F. fits better in this case.For independent X and Y random variable which follows distribution Po($lambda$) and Po($mu$).
                    P.G.F of X is
                    begin{equation*}
                    begin{split}
                    P_X[t] = E[t^X]&= sum_{x=0}^{infty}t^xe^{-lambda}frac{lambda^x}{x!}\
                    &=sum_{x=0}^{infty}e^{-lambda}frac{(lambda t)^x}{x!}\
                    &=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda t}\
                    &=e^{-lambda (1-t)}\
                    end{split}
                    end{equation*}
                    P.G.F of Y is
                    begin{equation*}
                    begin{split}
                    P_Y[t] = E[t^Y]&= sum_{y=0}^{infty}t^ye^{-mu}frac{mu^y}{y!}\
                    &=sum_{y=0}^{infty}e^{-mu}frac{(mu t)^y}{y!}\
                    &=e^{-mu}e^{mu t}\
                    &=e^{-mu (1-t)}\
                    end{split}
                    end{equation*}



                    Now think about P.G.F of U = X+Y.
                    As X and Y are independent,
                    begin{equation*}
                    begin{split}
                    P_U(t)=P_{X+Y}(t)=P_X(t)P_Y(t)=E[t^{X+Y}]=E[t^X t^Y]&= E[t^X]E[t^Y]\
                    &= e^{-lambda (1-t)}e^{-mu (1-t)}\
                    &= e^{-(lambda+mu) (1-t)}\
                    end{split}
                    end{equation*}



                    Now this is the P.G.F of $Po(lambda + mu)$ distribution. Therefore,we can say U=X+Y follows Po($lambda+mu$)






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$
















                      7












                      7








                      7





                      $begingroup$

                      You can use Probability Generating Function(P.G.F). As poisson distribution is a discrete probability distribution, P.G.F. fits better in this case.For independent X and Y random variable which follows distribution Po($lambda$) and Po($mu$).
                      P.G.F of X is
                      begin{equation*}
                      begin{split}
                      P_X[t] = E[t^X]&= sum_{x=0}^{infty}t^xe^{-lambda}frac{lambda^x}{x!}\
                      &=sum_{x=0}^{infty}e^{-lambda}frac{(lambda t)^x}{x!}\
                      &=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda t}\
                      &=e^{-lambda (1-t)}\
                      end{split}
                      end{equation*}
                      P.G.F of Y is
                      begin{equation*}
                      begin{split}
                      P_Y[t] = E[t^Y]&= sum_{y=0}^{infty}t^ye^{-mu}frac{mu^y}{y!}\
                      &=sum_{y=0}^{infty}e^{-mu}frac{(mu t)^y}{y!}\
                      &=e^{-mu}e^{mu t}\
                      &=e^{-mu (1-t)}\
                      end{split}
                      end{equation*}



                      Now think about P.G.F of U = X+Y.
                      As X and Y are independent,
                      begin{equation*}
                      begin{split}
                      P_U(t)=P_{X+Y}(t)=P_X(t)P_Y(t)=E[t^{X+Y}]=E[t^X t^Y]&= E[t^X]E[t^Y]\
                      &= e^{-lambda (1-t)}e^{-mu (1-t)}\
                      &= e^{-(lambda+mu) (1-t)}\
                      end{split}
                      end{equation*}



                      Now this is the P.G.F of $Po(lambda + mu)$ distribution. Therefore,we can say U=X+Y follows Po($lambda+mu$)






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      You can use Probability Generating Function(P.G.F). As poisson distribution is a discrete probability distribution, P.G.F. fits better in this case.For independent X and Y random variable which follows distribution Po($lambda$) and Po($mu$).
                      P.G.F of X is
                      begin{equation*}
                      begin{split}
                      P_X[t] = E[t^X]&= sum_{x=0}^{infty}t^xe^{-lambda}frac{lambda^x}{x!}\
                      &=sum_{x=0}^{infty}e^{-lambda}frac{(lambda t)^x}{x!}\
                      &=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda t}\
                      &=e^{-lambda (1-t)}\
                      end{split}
                      end{equation*}
                      P.G.F of Y is
                      begin{equation*}
                      begin{split}
                      P_Y[t] = E[t^Y]&= sum_{y=0}^{infty}t^ye^{-mu}frac{mu^y}{y!}\
                      &=sum_{y=0}^{infty}e^{-mu}frac{(mu t)^y}{y!}\
                      &=e^{-mu}e^{mu t}\
                      &=e^{-mu (1-t)}\
                      end{split}
                      end{equation*}



                      Now think about P.G.F of U = X+Y.
                      As X and Y are independent,
                      begin{equation*}
                      begin{split}
                      P_U(t)=P_{X+Y}(t)=P_X(t)P_Y(t)=E[t^{X+Y}]=E[t^X t^Y]&= E[t^X]E[t^Y]\
                      &= e^{-lambda (1-t)}e^{-mu (1-t)}\
                      &= e^{-(lambda+mu) (1-t)}\
                      end{split}
                      end{equation*}



                      Now this is the P.G.F of $Po(lambda + mu)$ distribution. Therefore,we can say U=X+Y follows Po($lambda+mu$)







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Sep 2 '14 at 5:34

























                      answered Jul 25 '13 at 15:52









                      AnandaAnanda

                      7315




                      7315























                          4












                          $begingroup$

                          In short, you can show this by using the fact that $$Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(X+Y=k, X=i).$$



                          If $X$ and $Y$ are independent, this is equal to
                          $$
                          Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(Y=k-i)Pr(X=i)
                          $$
                          which is
                          $$
                          begin{align}
                          Pr(X+Y=k)&=sum_{i=0}^kfrac{e^{-lambda_y}lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{e^{-lambda_x}lambda_x^i}{i!}\
                          &=e^{-lambda_y}e^{-lambda_x}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{lambda_x^i}{i!}\
                          &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i\
                          &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i
                          end{align}
                          $$
                          The sum part is just
                          $$
                          sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i=(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
                          $$
                          by the binomial theorem.
                          So the end result is
                          $$
                          begin{align}
                          Pr(X+Y=k)&=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
                          end{align}
                          $$
                          which is the pmf of $Po(lambda_y+lambda_x)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$













                          • $begingroup$
                            Moderator notice: This answer was moved here as a consequence of merging two questions. This explains the small differences in notation. The OP's $lambda$ is $lambda_x$ here, and OP's $mu$ is $lambda_y$. Otherwise there is no difference.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Jyrki Lahtonen
                            Apr 23 '15 at 6:55


















                          4












                          $begingroup$

                          In short, you can show this by using the fact that $$Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(X+Y=k, X=i).$$



                          If $X$ and $Y$ are independent, this is equal to
                          $$
                          Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(Y=k-i)Pr(X=i)
                          $$
                          which is
                          $$
                          begin{align}
                          Pr(X+Y=k)&=sum_{i=0}^kfrac{e^{-lambda_y}lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{e^{-lambda_x}lambda_x^i}{i!}\
                          &=e^{-lambda_y}e^{-lambda_x}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{lambda_x^i}{i!}\
                          &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i\
                          &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i
                          end{align}
                          $$
                          The sum part is just
                          $$
                          sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i=(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
                          $$
                          by the binomial theorem.
                          So the end result is
                          $$
                          begin{align}
                          Pr(X+Y=k)&=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
                          end{align}
                          $$
                          which is the pmf of $Po(lambda_y+lambda_x)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$













                          • $begingroup$
                            Moderator notice: This answer was moved here as a consequence of merging two questions. This explains the small differences in notation. The OP's $lambda$ is $lambda_x$ here, and OP's $mu$ is $lambda_y$. Otherwise there is no difference.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Jyrki Lahtonen
                            Apr 23 '15 at 6:55
















                          4












                          4








                          4





                          $begingroup$

                          In short, you can show this by using the fact that $$Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(X+Y=k, X=i).$$



                          If $X$ and $Y$ are independent, this is equal to
                          $$
                          Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(Y=k-i)Pr(X=i)
                          $$
                          which is
                          $$
                          begin{align}
                          Pr(X+Y=k)&=sum_{i=0}^kfrac{e^{-lambda_y}lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{e^{-lambda_x}lambda_x^i}{i!}\
                          &=e^{-lambda_y}e^{-lambda_x}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{lambda_x^i}{i!}\
                          &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i\
                          &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i
                          end{align}
                          $$
                          The sum part is just
                          $$
                          sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i=(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
                          $$
                          by the binomial theorem.
                          So the end result is
                          $$
                          begin{align}
                          Pr(X+Y=k)&=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
                          end{align}
                          $$
                          which is the pmf of $Po(lambda_y+lambda_x)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          In short, you can show this by using the fact that $$Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(X+Y=k, X=i).$$



                          If $X$ and $Y$ are independent, this is equal to
                          $$
                          Pr(X+Y=k)=sum_{i=0}^kPr(Y=k-i)Pr(X=i)
                          $$
                          which is
                          $$
                          begin{align}
                          Pr(X+Y=k)&=sum_{i=0}^kfrac{e^{-lambda_y}lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{e^{-lambda_x}lambda_x^i}{i!}\
                          &=e^{-lambda_y}e^{-lambda_x}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{lambda_y^{k-i}}{(k-i)!}frac{lambda_x^i}{i!}\
                          &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^kfrac{k!}{i!(k-i)!}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i\
                          &=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i
                          end{align}
                          $$
                          The sum part is just
                          $$
                          sum_{i=0}^k{kchoose i}lambda_y^{k-i}lambda_x^i=(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
                          $$
                          by the binomial theorem.
                          So the end result is
                          $$
                          begin{align}
                          Pr(X+Y=k)&=frac{e^{-(lambda_y+lambda_x)}}{k!}(lambda_y+lambda_x)^k
                          end{align}
                          $$
                          which is the pmf of $Po(lambda_y+lambda_x)$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 25 '13 at 7:54









                          hejsebhejseb

                          3,8071930




                          3,8071930












                          • $begingroup$
                            Moderator notice: This answer was moved here as a consequence of merging two questions. This explains the small differences in notation. The OP's $lambda$ is $lambda_x$ here, and OP's $mu$ is $lambda_y$. Otherwise there is no difference.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Jyrki Lahtonen
                            Apr 23 '15 at 6:55




















                          • $begingroup$
                            Moderator notice: This answer was moved here as a consequence of merging two questions. This explains the small differences in notation. The OP's $lambda$ is $lambda_x$ here, and OP's $mu$ is $lambda_y$. Otherwise there is no difference.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Jyrki Lahtonen
                            Apr 23 '15 at 6:55


















                          $begingroup$
                          Moderator notice: This answer was moved here as a consequence of merging two questions. This explains the small differences in notation. The OP's $lambda$ is $lambda_x$ here, and OP's $mu$ is $lambda_y$. Otherwise there is no difference.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Jyrki Lahtonen
                          Apr 23 '15 at 6:55






                          $begingroup$
                          Moderator notice: This answer was moved here as a consequence of merging two questions. This explains the small differences in notation. The OP's $lambda$ is $lambda_x$ here, and OP's $mu$ is $lambda_y$. Otherwise there is no difference.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Jyrki Lahtonen
                          Apr 23 '15 at 6:55













                          2












                          $begingroup$

                          Using Moment Generating Function.



                          If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, $Y sim mathcal{P}(mu)$ and S=X+Y.

                          We know that MGF(Moment Generating Function) of $mathcal{P}(lambda)=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}$(See the end if you need proof)

                          MGF of S would be
                          $$begin{align}
                          M_S(t)&=E[e^{tS}]\&=E[e^{t(X+Y)}]\&=E[e^{tX}e^{tY}]\&=E[e^{tX}]E[e^{tY}]quad text{given }X,Ytext{ are independent}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}e^{mu(e^t-1)}\&=e^{(lambda+mu)(e^t-1)}
                          end{align}$$

                          Thus S is a Poisson Distribution with parameter $lambda+mu$.





                          MGF of Poisson Distribution



                          If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, then by definition Probability Mass Function is

                          $$begin{align}
                          f_X(k)=frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda},quad k in 0,1,2....
                          end{align}$$
                          It's MGF is
                          $$begin{align}
                          M_X(t)&=E[e^{tX}]\&=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda}e^{tk}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^ke^{tk}}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(lambda e^t)^k}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda e^t}\&=e^{lambda e^t-lambda}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}
                          end{align}$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$


















                            2












                            $begingroup$

                            Using Moment Generating Function.



                            If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, $Y sim mathcal{P}(mu)$ and S=X+Y.

                            We know that MGF(Moment Generating Function) of $mathcal{P}(lambda)=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}$(See the end if you need proof)

                            MGF of S would be
                            $$begin{align}
                            M_S(t)&=E[e^{tS}]\&=E[e^{t(X+Y)}]\&=E[e^{tX}e^{tY}]\&=E[e^{tX}]E[e^{tY}]quad text{given }X,Ytext{ are independent}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}e^{mu(e^t-1)}\&=e^{(lambda+mu)(e^t-1)}
                            end{align}$$

                            Thus S is a Poisson Distribution with parameter $lambda+mu$.





                            MGF of Poisson Distribution



                            If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, then by definition Probability Mass Function is

                            $$begin{align}
                            f_X(k)=frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda},quad k in 0,1,2....
                            end{align}$$
                            It's MGF is
                            $$begin{align}
                            M_X(t)&=E[e^{tX}]\&=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda}e^{tk}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^ke^{tk}}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(lambda e^t)^k}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda e^t}\&=e^{lambda e^t-lambda}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}
                            end{align}$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer











                            $endgroup$
















                              2












                              2








                              2





                              $begingroup$

                              Using Moment Generating Function.



                              If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, $Y sim mathcal{P}(mu)$ and S=X+Y.

                              We know that MGF(Moment Generating Function) of $mathcal{P}(lambda)=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}$(See the end if you need proof)

                              MGF of S would be
                              $$begin{align}
                              M_S(t)&=E[e^{tS}]\&=E[e^{t(X+Y)}]\&=E[e^{tX}e^{tY}]\&=E[e^{tX}]E[e^{tY}]quad text{given }X,Ytext{ are independent}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}e^{mu(e^t-1)}\&=e^{(lambda+mu)(e^t-1)}
                              end{align}$$

                              Thus S is a Poisson Distribution with parameter $lambda+mu$.





                              MGF of Poisson Distribution



                              If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, then by definition Probability Mass Function is

                              $$begin{align}
                              f_X(k)=frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda},quad k in 0,1,2....
                              end{align}$$
                              It's MGF is
                              $$begin{align}
                              M_X(t)&=E[e^{tX}]\&=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda}e^{tk}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^ke^{tk}}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(lambda e^t)^k}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda e^t}\&=e^{lambda e^t-lambda}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}
                              end{align}$$






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              Using Moment Generating Function.



                              If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, $Y sim mathcal{P}(mu)$ and S=X+Y.

                              We know that MGF(Moment Generating Function) of $mathcal{P}(lambda)=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}$(See the end if you need proof)

                              MGF of S would be
                              $$begin{align}
                              M_S(t)&=E[e^{tS}]\&=E[e^{t(X+Y)}]\&=E[e^{tX}e^{tY}]\&=E[e^{tX}]E[e^{tY}]quad text{given }X,Ytext{ are independent}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}e^{mu(e^t-1)}\&=e^{(lambda+mu)(e^t-1)}
                              end{align}$$

                              Thus S is a Poisson Distribution with parameter $lambda+mu$.





                              MGF of Poisson Distribution



                              If $X sim mathcal{P}(lambda)$, then by definition Probability Mass Function is

                              $$begin{align}
                              f_X(k)=frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda},quad k in 0,1,2....
                              end{align}$$
                              It's MGF is
                              $$begin{align}
                              M_X(t)&=E[e^{tX}]\&=sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^k}{k!}e^{-lambda}e^{tk}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{lambda^ke^{tk}}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}sum_{k=0}^{infty}frac{(lambda e^t)^k}{k!}\&=e^{-lambda}e^{lambda e^t}\&=e^{lambda e^t-lambda}\&=e^{lambda(e^t-1)}
                              end{align}$$







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Apr 5 '18 at 20:46

























                              answered Apr 5 '18 at 20:21









                              kazakaza

                              1388




                              1388























                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  hint: $sum_{k=0}^{n} P(X = k)P(Y = n-k)$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$













                                  • $begingroup$
                                    why this hint, why the sum? This is what I don't understand
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user31280
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:22










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables. That's why.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – jay-sun
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:24










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    gotcha! Thanks!
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user31280
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:31










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables... Sorry but no.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Did
                                    Feb 13 '13 at 6:28






                                  • 1




                                    $begingroup$
                                    There is no usual sense for convolution of random variables. Either convolution of distributions or addition of random variables.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Did
                                    Feb 13 '13 at 6:51
















                                  1












                                  $begingroup$

                                  hint: $sum_{k=0}^{n} P(X = k)P(Y = n-k)$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$













                                  • $begingroup$
                                    why this hint, why the sum? This is what I don't understand
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user31280
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:22










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables. That's why.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – jay-sun
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:24










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    gotcha! Thanks!
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user31280
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:31










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables... Sorry but no.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Did
                                    Feb 13 '13 at 6:28






                                  • 1




                                    $begingroup$
                                    There is no usual sense for convolution of random variables. Either convolution of distributions or addition of random variables.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Did
                                    Feb 13 '13 at 6:51














                                  1












                                  1








                                  1





                                  $begingroup$

                                  hint: $sum_{k=0}^{n} P(X = k)P(Y = n-k)$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$



                                  hint: $sum_{k=0}^{n} P(X = k)P(Y = n-k)$







                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                  answered Oct 25 '12 at 20:20









                                  jay-sunjay-sun

                                  736513




                                  736513












                                  • $begingroup$
                                    why this hint, why the sum? This is what I don't understand
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user31280
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:22










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables. That's why.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – jay-sun
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:24










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    gotcha! Thanks!
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user31280
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:31










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables... Sorry but no.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Did
                                    Feb 13 '13 at 6:28






                                  • 1




                                    $begingroup$
                                    There is no usual sense for convolution of random variables. Either convolution of distributions or addition of random variables.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Did
                                    Feb 13 '13 at 6:51


















                                  • $begingroup$
                                    why this hint, why the sum? This is what I don't understand
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user31280
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:22










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables. That's why.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – jay-sun
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:24










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    gotcha! Thanks!
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – user31280
                                    Oct 25 '12 at 20:31










                                  • $begingroup$
                                    adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables... Sorry but no.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Did
                                    Feb 13 '13 at 6:28






                                  • 1




                                    $begingroup$
                                    There is no usual sense for convolution of random variables. Either convolution of distributions or addition of random variables.
                                    $endgroup$
                                    – Did
                                    Feb 13 '13 at 6:51
















                                  $begingroup$
                                  why this hint, why the sum? This is what I don't understand
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – user31280
                                  Oct 25 '12 at 20:22




                                  $begingroup$
                                  why this hint, why the sum? This is what I don't understand
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – user31280
                                  Oct 25 '12 at 20:22












                                  $begingroup$
                                  adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables. That's why.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – jay-sun
                                  Oct 25 '12 at 20:24




                                  $begingroup$
                                  adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables. That's why.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – jay-sun
                                  Oct 25 '12 at 20:24












                                  $begingroup$
                                  gotcha! Thanks!
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – user31280
                                  Oct 25 '12 at 20:31




                                  $begingroup$
                                  gotcha! Thanks!
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – user31280
                                  Oct 25 '12 at 20:31












                                  $begingroup$
                                  adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables... Sorry but no.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Feb 13 '13 at 6:28




                                  $begingroup$
                                  adding two random variables is simply convolution of those random variables... Sorry but no.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Feb 13 '13 at 6:28




                                  1




                                  1




                                  $begingroup$
                                  There is no usual sense for convolution of random variables. Either convolution of distributions or addition of random variables.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Feb 13 '13 at 6:51




                                  $begingroup$
                                  There is no usual sense for convolution of random variables. Either convolution of distributions or addition of random variables.
                                  $endgroup$
                                  – Did
                                  Feb 13 '13 at 6:51











                                  0












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Here's a much cleaner solution:



                                  Consider a two Poisson processes occuring with rates $lambda$ and $mu$, where a Poisson process of rate $r$ is viewed as the limit of $n$ consecutive Bernoulli trials each with probability $frac{r}{n}$, as $ntoinfty$.



                                  Then $X$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $lambda$ and $Y$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $mu$, so the total number of successes is the same as if we had each trial succeed with probability $frac{lambda + mu}{n}$, where we take $n$ to be large enough so that the event where the $i$th Bernoulli trial in both processes are successdul has a negligible probability.
                                  Then we are done.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$


















                                    0












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Here's a much cleaner solution:



                                    Consider a two Poisson processes occuring with rates $lambda$ and $mu$, where a Poisson process of rate $r$ is viewed as the limit of $n$ consecutive Bernoulli trials each with probability $frac{r}{n}$, as $ntoinfty$.



                                    Then $X$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $lambda$ and $Y$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $mu$, so the total number of successes is the same as if we had each trial succeed with probability $frac{lambda + mu}{n}$, where we take $n$ to be large enough so that the event where the $i$th Bernoulli trial in both processes are successdul has a negligible probability.
                                    Then we are done.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer









                                    $endgroup$
















                                      0












                                      0








                                      0





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Here's a much cleaner solution:



                                      Consider a two Poisson processes occuring with rates $lambda$ and $mu$, where a Poisson process of rate $r$ is viewed as the limit of $n$ consecutive Bernoulli trials each with probability $frac{r}{n}$, as $ntoinfty$.



                                      Then $X$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $lambda$ and $Y$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $mu$, so the total number of successes is the same as if we had each trial succeed with probability $frac{lambda + mu}{n}$, where we take $n$ to be large enough so that the event where the $i$th Bernoulli trial in both processes are successdul has a negligible probability.
                                      Then we are done.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$



                                      Here's a much cleaner solution:



                                      Consider a two Poisson processes occuring with rates $lambda$ and $mu$, where a Poisson process of rate $r$ is viewed as the limit of $n$ consecutive Bernoulli trials each with probability $frac{r}{n}$, as $ntoinfty$.



                                      Then $X$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $lambda$ and $Y$ counts the number of successes in the trials of rate $mu$, so the total number of successes is the same as if we had each trial succeed with probability $frac{lambda + mu}{n}$, where we take $n$ to be large enough so that the event where the $i$th Bernoulli trial in both processes are successdul has a negligible probability.
                                      Then we are done.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Dec 15 '18 at 4:00









                                      AnonAnon

                                      376313




                                      376313






























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