Proving divisibility of a polynomial by a square of a polynomial.











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I need to prove that a polynomial $f left( x right) in mathbb{Q} left[ X right]$ is divisible by a square of a polynomial iff $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree.



I have no idea where to start, except that I have to use the properties of Polynomial Rings as Euclidean Domain.










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  • The easy direction: Suppose there is some polynomial $g(x)$, which is not a unit,such that $g(x)^2k_1(x)=f(x)$. Then take derivative on both side of the equation to get $2g(x)g'(x)k_1(x)+g(x)^2k_1'(x)=f'(x)$. Well this says that g(x) is a common factor of $f(x)$ and $f'(x)$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 21 at 11:22















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I need to prove that a polynomial $f left( x right) in mathbb{Q} left[ X right]$ is divisible by a square of a polynomial iff $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree.



I have no idea where to start, except that I have to use the properties of Polynomial Rings as Euclidean Domain.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • The easy direction: Suppose there is some polynomial $g(x)$, which is not a unit,such that $g(x)^2k_1(x)=f(x)$. Then take derivative on both side of the equation to get $2g(x)g'(x)k_1(x)+g(x)^2k_1'(x)=f'(x)$. Well this says that g(x) is a common factor of $f(x)$ and $f'(x)$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 21 at 11:22













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I need to prove that a polynomial $f left( x right) in mathbb{Q} left[ X right]$ is divisible by a square of a polynomial iff $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree.



I have no idea where to start, except that I have to use the properties of Polynomial Rings as Euclidean Domain.










share|cite|improve this question













I need to prove that a polynomial $f left( x right) in mathbb{Q} left[ X right]$ is divisible by a square of a polynomial iff $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree.



I have no idea where to start, except that I have to use the properties of Polynomial Rings as Euclidean Domain.







abstract-algebra polynomials ring-theory euclidean-domain






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asked Nov 21 at 10:44









Aniruddha Deshmukh

754418




754418












  • The easy direction: Suppose there is some polynomial $g(x)$, which is not a unit,such that $g(x)^2k_1(x)=f(x)$. Then take derivative on both side of the equation to get $2g(x)g'(x)k_1(x)+g(x)^2k_1'(x)=f'(x)$. Well this says that g(x) is a common factor of $f(x)$ and $f'(x)$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 21 at 11:22


















  • The easy direction: Suppose there is some polynomial $g(x)$, which is not a unit,such that $g(x)^2k_1(x)=f(x)$. Then take derivative on both side of the equation to get $2g(x)g'(x)k_1(x)+g(x)^2k_1'(x)=f'(x)$. Well this says that g(x) is a common factor of $f(x)$ and $f'(x)$.
    – mathnoob
    Nov 21 at 11:22
















The easy direction: Suppose there is some polynomial $g(x)$, which is not a unit,such that $g(x)^2k_1(x)=f(x)$. Then take derivative on both side of the equation to get $2g(x)g'(x)k_1(x)+g(x)^2k_1'(x)=f'(x)$. Well this says that g(x) is a common factor of $f(x)$ and $f'(x)$.
– mathnoob
Nov 21 at 11:22




The easy direction: Suppose there is some polynomial $g(x)$, which is not a unit,such that $g(x)^2k_1(x)=f(x)$. Then take derivative on both side of the equation to get $2g(x)g'(x)k_1(x)+g(x)^2k_1'(x)=f'(x)$. Well this says that g(x) is a common factor of $f(x)$ and $f'(x)$.
– mathnoob
Nov 21 at 11:22










2 Answers
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Let $q(x)$ be an irreducible common divisor of $f$ and $f'$. Division of $f$ by $q^2$ provides
$$
f=kq^2+r, quad text{with},,,deg r<deg q^2
$$

and as $q$ divides $f$, then $q$ divides $r$, and thus
$$
f=kq^2+r_1q, quad text{with},,,deg r_1<deg q.
$$

Differentiating we obtain
$$
f'=k'q^2+(2kq'+r_1')q+r_1q'
$$

But since $q$ divides $f'$, then $q$ divides $r_1q'$, and since $q$ is irreducible, then $q$ divides $q'$or $r_1$. But, $,deg q>deg q'$, and hence $q$ does not divide $q'$, as $q'ne 0$. Hence $q$ divides $r_1$, which implies that $r_1equiv 0$, since $deg r_1<deg q$.






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  • "Division of $f$ by $q$" should be "Division of $f$ by $q^2$" right? Also, "q divides f', then q' divides $r_1q$' " should be "q divides f' then q divides $r_1q$' "right?
    – mathnoob
    Nov 21 at 11:25












  • @mathnoob Yes - I corrected my answer. Thanx!
    – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
    Nov 21 at 11:34


















up vote
1
down vote













Hint: One direction is easy. For the other direction, note that $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree iff $f$ and $f'$ have an irreducible common divisor.



Make sure to pinpoint where working over $mathbb{Q}$ enters in your argument.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    Let $q(x)$ be an irreducible common divisor of $f$ and $f'$. Division of $f$ by $q^2$ provides
    $$
    f=kq^2+r, quad text{with},,,deg r<deg q^2
    $$

    and as $q$ divides $f$, then $q$ divides $r$, and thus
    $$
    f=kq^2+r_1q, quad text{with},,,deg r_1<deg q.
    $$

    Differentiating we obtain
    $$
    f'=k'q^2+(2kq'+r_1')q+r_1q'
    $$

    But since $q$ divides $f'$, then $q$ divides $r_1q'$, and since $q$ is irreducible, then $q$ divides $q'$or $r_1$. But, $,deg q>deg q'$, and hence $q$ does not divide $q'$, as $q'ne 0$. Hence $q$ divides $r_1$, which implies that $r_1equiv 0$, since $deg r_1<deg q$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • "Division of $f$ by $q$" should be "Division of $f$ by $q^2$" right? Also, "q divides f', then q' divides $r_1q$' " should be "q divides f' then q divides $r_1q$' "right?
      – mathnoob
      Nov 21 at 11:25












    • @mathnoob Yes - I corrected my answer. Thanx!
      – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
      Nov 21 at 11:34















    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Let $q(x)$ be an irreducible common divisor of $f$ and $f'$. Division of $f$ by $q^2$ provides
    $$
    f=kq^2+r, quad text{with},,,deg r<deg q^2
    $$

    and as $q$ divides $f$, then $q$ divides $r$, and thus
    $$
    f=kq^2+r_1q, quad text{with},,,deg r_1<deg q.
    $$

    Differentiating we obtain
    $$
    f'=k'q^2+(2kq'+r_1')q+r_1q'
    $$

    But since $q$ divides $f'$, then $q$ divides $r_1q'$, and since $q$ is irreducible, then $q$ divides $q'$or $r_1$. But, $,deg q>deg q'$, and hence $q$ does not divide $q'$, as $q'ne 0$. Hence $q$ divides $r_1$, which implies that $r_1equiv 0$, since $deg r_1<deg q$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • "Division of $f$ by $q$" should be "Division of $f$ by $q^2$" right? Also, "q divides f', then q' divides $r_1q$' " should be "q divides f' then q divides $r_1q$' "right?
      – mathnoob
      Nov 21 at 11:25












    • @mathnoob Yes - I corrected my answer. Thanx!
      – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
      Nov 21 at 11:34













    up vote
    2
    down vote










    up vote
    2
    down vote









    Let $q(x)$ be an irreducible common divisor of $f$ and $f'$. Division of $f$ by $q^2$ provides
    $$
    f=kq^2+r, quad text{with},,,deg r<deg q^2
    $$

    and as $q$ divides $f$, then $q$ divides $r$, and thus
    $$
    f=kq^2+r_1q, quad text{with},,,deg r_1<deg q.
    $$

    Differentiating we obtain
    $$
    f'=k'q^2+(2kq'+r_1')q+r_1q'
    $$

    But since $q$ divides $f'$, then $q$ divides $r_1q'$, and since $q$ is irreducible, then $q$ divides $q'$or $r_1$. But, $,deg q>deg q'$, and hence $q$ does not divide $q'$, as $q'ne 0$. Hence $q$ divides $r_1$, which implies that $r_1equiv 0$, since $deg r_1<deg q$.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Let $q(x)$ be an irreducible common divisor of $f$ and $f'$. Division of $f$ by $q^2$ provides
    $$
    f=kq^2+r, quad text{with},,,deg r<deg q^2
    $$

    and as $q$ divides $f$, then $q$ divides $r$, and thus
    $$
    f=kq^2+r_1q, quad text{with},,,deg r_1<deg q.
    $$

    Differentiating we obtain
    $$
    f'=k'q^2+(2kq'+r_1')q+r_1q'
    $$

    But since $q$ divides $f'$, then $q$ divides $r_1q'$, and since $q$ is irreducible, then $q$ divides $q'$or $r_1$. But, $,deg q>deg q'$, and hence $q$ does not divide $q'$, as $q'ne 0$. Hence $q$ divides $r_1$, which implies that $r_1equiv 0$, since $deg r_1<deg q$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 21 at 11:34

























    answered Nov 21 at 11:13









    Yiorgos S. Smyrlis

    61.8k1383161




    61.8k1383161












    • "Division of $f$ by $q$" should be "Division of $f$ by $q^2$" right? Also, "q divides f', then q' divides $r_1q$' " should be "q divides f' then q divides $r_1q$' "right?
      – mathnoob
      Nov 21 at 11:25












    • @mathnoob Yes - I corrected my answer. Thanx!
      – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
      Nov 21 at 11:34


















    • "Division of $f$ by $q$" should be "Division of $f$ by $q^2$" right? Also, "q divides f', then q' divides $r_1q$' " should be "q divides f' then q divides $r_1q$' "right?
      – mathnoob
      Nov 21 at 11:25












    • @mathnoob Yes - I corrected my answer. Thanx!
      – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
      Nov 21 at 11:34
















    "Division of $f$ by $q$" should be "Division of $f$ by $q^2$" right? Also, "q divides f', then q' divides $r_1q$' " should be "q divides f' then q divides $r_1q$' "right?
    – mathnoob
    Nov 21 at 11:25






    "Division of $f$ by $q$" should be "Division of $f$ by $q^2$" right? Also, "q divides f', then q' divides $r_1q$' " should be "q divides f' then q divides $r_1q$' "right?
    – mathnoob
    Nov 21 at 11:25














    @mathnoob Yes - I corrected my answer. Thanx!
    – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
    Nov 21 at 11:34




    @mathnoob Yes - I corrected my answer. Thanx!
    – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis
    Nov 21 at 11:34










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Hint: One direction is easy. For the other direction, note that $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree iff $f$ and $f'$ have an irreducible common divisor.



    Make sure to pinpoint where working over $mathbb{Q}$ enters in your argument.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Hint: One direction is easy. For the other direction, note that $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree iff $f$ and $f'$ have an irreducible common divisor.



      Make sure to pinpoint where working over $mathbb{Q}$ enters in your argument.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        Hint: One direction is easy. For the other direction, note that $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree iff $f$ and $f'$ have an irreducible common divisor.



        Make sure to pinpoint where working over $mathbb{Q}$ enters in your argument.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Hint: One direction is easy. For the other direction, note that $f$ and $f'$ have a greatest common divisor of positive degree iff $f$ and $f'$ have an irreducible common divisor.



        Make sure to pinpoint where working over $mathbb{Q}$ enters in your argument.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 21 at 11:00

























        answered Nov 21 at 10:53









        lhf

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