Conjugate of contour integrals











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Let $varphi : { z in C | |z| = 1} rightarrow C$ be a continuous function and let $gamma$ be the circular contour centered at 0 of radius 1 positively oriented. Prove that



$$overline{int_{gamma}! varphi (z) mathrm{d}z} = - int_gamma! overline{varphi (z)} frac{mathrm{d}z}{z^2}$$



I think you might be able to use Cauchy's residue theorem but I'm not too sure, any help is greatly appreciated










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Let $varphi : { z in C | |z| = 1} rightarrow C$ be a continuous function and let $gamma$ be the circular contour centered at 0 of radius 1 positively oriented. Prove that



    $$overline{int_{gamma}! varphi (z) mathrm{d}z} = - int_gamma! overline{varphi (z)} frac{mathrm{d}z}{z^2}$$



    I think you might be able to use Cauchy's residue theorem but I'm not too sure, any help is greatly appreciated










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $varphi : { z in C | |z| = 1} rightarrow C$ be a continuous function and let $gamma$ be the circular contour centered at 0 of radius 1 positively oriented. Prove that



      $$overline{int_{gamma}! varphi (z) mathrm{d}z} = - int_gamma! overline{varphi (z)} frac{mathrm{d}z}{z^2}$$



      I think you might be able to use Cauchy's residue theorem but I'm not too sure, any help is greatly appreciated










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $varphi : { z in C | |z| = 1} rightarrow C$ be a continuous function and let $gamma$ be the circular contour centered at 0 of radius 1 positively oriented. Prove that



      $$overline{int_{gamma}! varphi (z) mathrm{d}z} = - int_gamma! overline{varphi (z)} frac{mathrm{d}z}{z^2}$$



      I think you might be able to use Cauchy's residue theorem but I'm not too sure, any help is greatly appreciated







      complex-analysis contour-integration






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      edited Nov 25 at 17:44









      Bernard

      117k637109




      117k637109










      asked Nov 25 at 17:31









      ProfessorPyg

      32




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          You don't have to bother about the $phi$. (Note that $phi$ is only continuous.) The magic is with the $dz$. On $partial D_1$ one has $bar z={1over z}$. It follows that
          $$dbar z= dleft({1over z}right)=-{1over z^2}>dz .$$






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            Hint: take the obvious parametrization $z = e^{it}, tin [0,2pi]$ and do
            $$
            overline{int_{gamma}varphi(z),dz} =
            overline{int_0^{2pi}varphi(e^{it})ie^{it},dt} = cdots
            $$






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • I know how I would do this if i knew $varphi (z)$ but as I don't know the actual function what would go in that second integral, thanks
              – ProfessorPyg
              Nov 25 at 22:56










            • @ProfessorPyg, the exact value of $varphi$ is irrelevant. Edited, can you continue or do the same for the RHS?
              – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
              Nov 26 at 9:22











            Your Answer





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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

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            active

            oldest

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            up vote
            0
            down vote



            accepted










            You don't have to bother about the $phi$. (Note that $phi$ is only continuous.) The magic is with the $dz$. On $partial D_1$ one has $bar z={1over z}$. It follows that
            $$dbar z= dleft({1over z}right)=-{1over z^2}>dz .$$






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote



              accepted










              You don't have to bother about the $phi$. (Note that $phi$ is only continuous.) The magic is with the $dz$. On $partial D_1$ one has $bar z={1over z}$. It follows that
              $$dbar z= dleft({1over z}right)=-{1over z^2}>dz .$$






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                0
                down vote



                accepted






                You don't have to bother about the $phi$. (Note that $phi$ is only continuous.) The magic is with the $dz$. On $partial D_1$ one has $bar z={1over z}$. It follows that
                $$dbar z= dleft({1over z}right)=-{1over z^2}>dz .$$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                You don't have to bother about the $phi$. (Note that $phi$ is only continuous.) The magic is with the $dz$. On $partial D_1$ one has $bar z={1over z}$. It follows that
                $$dbar z= dleft({1over z}right)=-{1over z^2}>dz .$$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 26 at 9:29









                Christian Blatter

                171k7111325




                171k7111325






















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    Hint: take the obvious parametrization $z = e^{it}, tin [0,2pi]$ and do
                    $$
                    overline{int_{gamma}varphi(z),dz} =
                    overline{int_0^{2pi}varphi(e^{it})ie^{it},dt} = cdots
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer























                    • I know how I would do this if i knew $varphi (z)$ but as I don't know the actual function what would go in that second integral, thanks
                      – ProfessorPyg
                      Nov 25 at 22:56










                    • @ProfessorPyg, the exact value of $varphi$ is irrelevant. Edited, can you continue or do the same for the RHS?
                      – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
                      Nov 26 at 9:22















                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote













                    Hint: take the obvious parametrization $z = e^{it}, tin [0,2pi]$ and do
                    $$
                    overline{int_{gamma}varphi(z),dz} =
                    overline{int_0^{2pi}varphi(e^{it})ie^{it},dt} = cdots
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer























                    • I know how I would do this if i knew $varphi (z)$ but as I don't know the actual function what would go in that second integral, thanks
                      – ProfessorPyg
                      Nov 25 at 22:56










                    • @ProfessorPyg, the exact value of $varphi$ is irrelevant. Edited, can you continue or do the same for the RHS?
                      – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
                      Nov 26 at 9:22













                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    Hint: take the obvious parametrization $z = e^{it}, tin [0,2pi]$ and do
                    $$
                    overline{int_{gamma}varphi(z),dz} =
                    overline{int_0^{2pi}varphi(e^{it})ie^{it},dt} = cdots
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Hint: take the obvious parametrization $z = e^{it}, tin [0,2pi]$ and do
                    $$
                    overline{int_{gamma}varphi(z),dz} =
                    overline{int_0^{2pi}varphi(e^{it})ie^{it},dt} = cdots
                    $$







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Nov 26 at 9:19

























                    answered Nov 25 at 18:31









                    Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla

                    33.9k42771




                    33.9k42771












                    • I know how I would do this if i knew $varphi (z)$ but as I don't know the actual function what would go in that second integral, thanks
                      – ProfessorPyg
                      Nov 25 at 22:56










                    • @ProfessorPyg, the exact value of $varphi$ is irrelevant. Edited, can you continue or do the same for the RHS?
                      – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
                      Nov 26 at 9:22


















                    • I know how I would do this if i knew $varphi (z)$ but as I don't know the actual function what would go in that second integral, thanks
                      – ProfessorPyg
                      Nov 25 at 22:56










                    • @ProfessorPyg, the exact value of $varphi$ is irrelevant. Edited, can you continue or do the same for the RHS?
                      – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
                      Nov 26 at 9:22
















                    I know how I would do this if i knew $varphi (z)$ but as I don't know the actual function what would go in that second integral, thanks
                    – ProfessorPyg
                    Nov 25 at 22:56




                    I know how I would do this if i knew $varphi (z)$ but as I don't know the actual function what would go in that second integral, thanks
                    – ProfessorPyg
                    Nov 25 at 22:56












                    @ProfessorPyg, the exact value of $varphi$ is irrelevant. Edited, can you continue or do the same for the RHS?
                    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
                    Nov 26 at 9:22




                    @ProfessorPyg, the exact value of $varphi$ is irrelevant. Edited, can you continue or do the same for the RHS?
                    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
                    Nov 26 at 9:22


















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