Show that the space $S$ of real sequences that are $0$ after a certain rank is not complete with the uniform...











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Show that the space $S$ of all real sequences that are $0$ after a certain rank is not complete with the uniform norm. Find a metric space $X$ such that $bar{S} = X.$



I took the sequence $x_{k}^{n}=(1,1/2,1/3,cdots ,1/n,0,0,cdots)$ then for $ngeq m$
$$||x_{k}^{n}-x_{k}^{m}||_{infty}leq frac{1}{m+1}to 0$$ and so the sequence ${x^{n}_{k}}$ is Cauchy. However it is not convergent since the limit $x=(1,1/2,1/3,cdots)$ does not belong to $S.$ So $S$ is not complete. Next, I am guessing that $X= l^{infty},$ but I am not sure how to prove this. Any hints will be much appreicated.










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    Show that the space $S$ of all real sequences that are $0$ after a certain rank is not complete with the uniform norm. Find a metric space $X$ such that $bar{S} = X.$



    I took the sequence $x_{k}^{n}=(1,1/2,1/3,cdots ,1/n,0,0,cdots)$ then for $ngeq m$
    $$||x_{k}^{n}-x_{k}^{m}||_{infty}leq frac{1}{m+1}to 0$$ and so the sequence ${x^{n}_{k}}$ is Cauchy. However it is not convergent since the limit $x=(1,1/2,1/3,cdots)$ does not belong to $S.$ So $S$ is not complete. Next, I am guessing that $X= l^{infty},$ but I am not sure how to prove this. Any hints will be much appreicated.










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      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite











      Show that the space $S$ of all real sequences that are $0$ after a certain rank is not complete with the uniform norm. Find a metric space $X$ such that $bar{S} = X.$



      I took the sequence $x_{k}^{n}=(1,1/2,1/3,cdots ,1/n,0,0,cdots)$ then for $ngeq m$
      $$||x_{k}^{n}-x_{k}^{m}||_{infty}leq frac{1}{m+1}to 0$$ and so the sequence ${x^{n}_{k}}$ is Cauchy. However it is not convergent since the limit $x=(1,1/2,1/3,cdots)$ does not belong to $S.$ So $S$ is not complete. Next, I am guessing that $X= l^{infty},$ but I am not sure how to prove this. Any hints will be much appreicated.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Show that the space $S$ of all real sequences that are $0$ after a certain rank is not complete with the uniform norm. Find a metric space $X$ such that $bar{S} = X.$



      I took the sequence $x_{k}^{n}=(1,1/2,1/3,cdots ,1/n,0,0,cdots)$ then for $ngeq m$
      $$||x_{k}^{n}-x_{k}^{m}||_{infty}leq frac{1}{m+1}to 0$$ and so the sequence ${x^{n}_{k}}$ is Cauchy. However it is not convergent since the limit $x=(1,1/2,1/3,cdots)$ does not belong to $S.$ So $S$ is not complete. Next, I am guessing that $X= l^{infty},$ but I am not sure how to prove this. Any hints will be much appreicated.







      real-analysis functional-analysis






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      asked Nov 25 at 16:47









      Hello_World

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          If $X=ell^{infty}$, then you would be able to approximate the element
          $$bar{x}=(1,1,1,dots) $$
          with eventually vanishing sequences. This is clearly not true. So $X$ is a smaller space.



          More generally the problem is represent by elements containing infinitely many elements larger than $varepsilon$ for some $varepsilon>0$. Indeed, in this case, if $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}subset S$, we have
          $$|x^k-bar{x}|_{infty}geq varepsilon $$
          and so $x^knot to bar{x}$. But these are precisely the elements $bar{x}=(bar{x}_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ such that $lim_{nto +infty}bar{x}_nneq 0$. So we might guess that
          $$X=left{x=(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}in ell^{infty}:lim_{nto +infty}x_n=0right} $$
          it remains to verify that indeed, each element $xin X$ can be approximated by a sequence $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}$ elements in $S$, and this is easily done by truncating the sequence $(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ at the $k$-th index.






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            If $X=ell^{infty}$, then you would be able to approximate the element
            $$bar{x}=(1,1,1,dots) $$
            with eventually vanishing sequences. This is clearly not true. So $X$ is a smaller space.



            More generally the problem is represent by elements containing infinitely many elements larger than $varepsilon$ for some $varepsilon>0$. Indeed, in this case, if $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}subset S$, we have
            $$|x^k-bar{x}|_{infty}geq varepsilon $$
            and so $x^knot to bar{x}$. But these are precisely the elements $bar{x}=(bar{x}_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ such that $lim_{nto +infty}bar{x}_nneq 0$. So we might guess that
            $$X=left{x=(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}in ell^{infty}:lim_{nto +infty}x_n=0right} $$
            it remains to verify that indeed, each element $xin X$ can be approximated by a sequence $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}$ elements in $S$, and this is easily done by truncating the sequence $(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ at the $k$-th index.






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              up vote
              0
              down vote













              If $X=ell^{infty}$, then you would be able to approximate the element
              $$bar{x}=(1,1,1,dots) $$
              with eventually vanishing sequences. This is clearly not true. So $X$ is a smaller space.



              More generally the problem is represent by elements containing infinitely many elements larger than $varepsilon$ for some $varepsilon>0$. Indeed, in this case, if $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}subset S$, we have
              $$|x^k-bar{x}|_{infty}geq varepsilon $$
              and so $x^knot to bar{x}$. But these are precisely the elements $bar{x}=(bar{x}_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ such that $lim_{nto +infty}bar{x}_nneq 0$. So we might guess that
              $$X=left{x=(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}in ell^{infty}:lim_{nto +infty}x_n=0right} $$
              it remains to verify that indeed, each element $xin X$ can be approximated by a sequence $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}$ elements in $S$, and this is easily done by truncating the sequence $(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ at the $k$-th index.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                If $X=ell^{infty}$, then you would be able to approximate the element
                $$bar{x}=(1,1,1,dots) $$
                with eventually vanishing sequences. This is clearly not true. So $X$ is a smaller space.



                More generally the problem is represent by elements containing infinitely many elements larger than $varepsilon$ for some $varepsilon>0$. Indeed, in this case, if $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}subset S$, we have
                $$|x^k-bar{x}|_{infty}geq varepsilon $$
                and so $x^knot to bar{x}$. But these are precisely the elements $bar{x}=(bar{x}_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ such that $lim_{nto +infty}bar{x}_nneq 0$. So we might guess that
                $$X=left{x=(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}in ell^{infty}:lim_{nto +infty}x_n=0right} $$
                it remains to verify that indeed, each element $xin X$ can be approximated by a sequence $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}$ elements in $S$, and this is easily done by truncating the sequence $(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ at the $k$-th index.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                If $X=ell^{infty}$, then you would be able to approximate the element
                $$bar{x}=(1,1,1,dots) $$
                with eventually vanishing sequences. This is clearly not true. So $X$ is a smaller space.



                More generally the problem is represent by elements containing infinitely many elements larger than $varepsilon$ for some $varepsilon>0$. Indeed, in this case, if $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}subset S$, we have
                $$|x^k-bar{x}|_{infty}geq varepsilon $$
                and so $x^knot to bar{x}$. But these are precisely the elements $bar{x}=(bar{x}_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ such that $lim_{nto +infty}bar{x}_nneq 0$. So we might guess that
                $$X=left{x=(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}in ell^{infty}:lim_{nto +infty}x_n=0right} $$
                it remains to verify that indeed, each element $xin X$ can be approximated by a sequence $left{x^kright}_{kin mathbb{N}}$ elements in $S$, and this is easily done by truncating the sequence $(x_n)_{nin mathbb{N}}$ at the $k$-th index.







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                answered Nov 25 at 17:08









                Lorenzo Quarisa

                3,146316




                3,146316






























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