Is $T$ bounded if $(X,d)$ is not complete?











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I) Let $b_1,b_2,...,b_n....$ be a Cauchy sequence in a complete metric space $(X,d)$. If $T$ is the set of points in the sequence show that $T$ is a bounded set.




As the space is complete, every Cauchy sequence is convergent and every convergent sequence is bounded. As $Tsubseteq{b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ then $T$ is bounded.




II) Is I) above still true if we do not insist that $(X,d)$ is complete?




If I) is not true then the sequence is not necessarily convergent in $X$ so it remains to show if every Cauchy sequence is bounded.



I devised the following proof:



As ${b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence then $forallepsilon>0exists m,n>Ninmathbb{N}$ such that $d(b_n,b_m)<epsilon$.



$max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}$ must be smaller than some $Linmathbb{R}$, which implies that the $max_{i,jin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_j)}leqslant max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}+d(b_n,b_m)<L+epsilon $, proving the Cauchy sequence is bounded.



Question:



Is my proof right? If not. What are the alternatives?



Thanks in advance!










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    I) Let $b_1,b_2,...,b_n....$ be a Cauchy sequence in a complete metric space $(X,d)$. If $T$ is the set of points in the sequence show that $T$ is a bounded set.




    As the space is complete, every Cauchy sequence is convergent and every convergent sequence is bounded. As $Tsubseteq{b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ then $T$ is bounded.




    II) Is I) above still true if we do not insist that $(X,d)$ is complete?




    If I) is not true then the sequence is not necessarily convergent in $X$ so it remains to show if every Cauchy sequence is bounded.



    I devised the following proof:



    As ${b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence then $forallepsilon>0exists m,n>Ninmathbb{N}$ such that $d(b_n,b_m)<epsilon$.



    $max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}$ must be smaller than some $Linmathbb{R}$, which implies that the $max_{i,jin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_j)}leqslant max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}+d(b_n,b_m)<L+epsilon $, proving the Cauchy sequence is bounded.



    Question:



    Is my proof right? If not. What are the alternatives?



    Thanks in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite












      I) Let $b_1,b_2,...,b_n....$ be a Cauchy sequence in a complete metric space $(X,d)$. If $T$ is the set of points in the sequence show that $T$ is a bounded set.




      As the space is complete, every Cauchy sequence is convergent and every convergent sequence is bounded. As $Tsubseteq{b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ then $T$ is bounded.




      II) Is I) above still true if we do not insist that $(X,d)$ is complete?




      If I) is not true then the sequence is not necessarily convergent in $X$ so it remains to show if every Cauchy sequence is bounded.



      I devised the following proof:



      As ${b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence then $forallepsilon>0exists m,n>Ninmathbb{N}$ such that $d(b_n,b_m)<epsilon$.



      $max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}$ must be smaller than some $Linmathbb{R}$, which implies that the $max_{i,jin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_j)}leqslant max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}+d(b_n,b_m)<L+epsilon $, proving the Cauchy sequence is bounded.



      Question:



      Is my proof right? If not. What are the alternatives?



      Thanks in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question
















      I) Let $b_1,b_2,...,b_n....$ be a Cauchy sequence in a complete metric space $(X,d)$. If $T$ is the set of points in the sequence show that $T$ is a bounded set.




      As the space is complete, every Cauchy sequence is convergent and every convergent sequence is bounded. As $Tsubseteq{b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ then $T$ is bounded.




      II) Is I) above still true if we do not insist that $(X,d)$ is complete?




      If I) is not true then the sequence is not necessarily convergent in $X$ so it remains to show if every Cauchy sequence is bounded.



      I devised the following proof:



      As ${b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence then $forallepsilon>0exists m,n>Ninmathbb{N}$ such that $d(b_n,b_m)<epsilon$.



      $max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}$ must be smaller than some $Linmathbb{R}$, which implies that the $max_{i,jin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_j)}leqslant max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}+d(b_n,b_m)<L+epsilon $, proving the Cauchy sequence is bounded.



      Question:



      Is my proof right? If not. What are the alternatives?



      Thanks in advance!







      general-topology metric-spaces cauchy-sequences






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      edited Nov 23 at 22:37









      José Carlos Santos

      144k20112212




      144k20112212










      asked Nov 23 at 22:28









      Pedro Gomes

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      1,6042620






















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          The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.



          It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            up vote
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            down vote



            accepted










            The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.



            It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.



              It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted






                The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.



                It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.



                It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 23 at 22:36









                José Carlos Santos

                144k20112212




                144k20112212






























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