Is $T$ bounded if $(X,d)$ is not complete?
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I) Let $b_1,b_2,...,b_n....$ be a Cauchy sequence in a complete metric space $(X,d)$. If $T$ is the set of points in the sequence show that $T$ is a bounded set.
As the space is complete, every Cauchy sequence is convergent and every convergent sequence is bounded. As $Tsubseteq{b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ then $T$ is bounded.
II) Is I) above still true if we do not insist that $(X,d)$ is complete?
If I) is not true then the sequence is not necessarily convergent in $X$ so it remains to show if every Cauchy sequence is bounded.
I devised the following proof:
As ${b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence then $forallepsilon>0exists m,n>Ninmathbb{N}$ such that $d(b_n,b_m)<epsilon$.
$max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}$ must be smaller than some $Linmathbb{R}$, which implies that the $max_{i,jin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_j)}leqslant max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}+d(b_n,b_m)<L+epsilon $, proving the Cauchy sequence is bounded.
Question:
Is my proof right? If not. What are the alternatives?
Thanks in advance!
general-topology metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
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up vote
0
down vote
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I) Let $b_1,b_2,...,b_n....$ be a Cauchy sequence in a complete metric space $(X,d)$. If $T$ is the set of points in the sequence show that $T$ is a bounded set.
As the space is complete, every Cauchy sequence is convergent and every convergent sequence is bounded. As $Tsubseteq{b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ then $T$ is bounded.
II) Is I) above still true if we do not insist that $(X,d)$ is complete?
If I) is not true then the sequence is not necessarily convergent in $X$ so it remains to show if every Cauchy sequence is bounded.
I devised the following proof:
As ${b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence then $forallepsilon>0exists m,n>Ninmathbb{N}$ such that $d(b_n,b_m)<epsilon$.
$max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}$ must be smaller than some $Linmathbb{R}$, which implies that the $max_{i,jin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_j)}leqslant max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}+d(b_n,b_m)<L+epsilon $, proving the Cauchy sequence is bounded.
Question:
Is my proof right? If not. What are the alternatives?
Thanks in advance!
general-topology metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
I) Let $b_1,b_2,...,b_n....$ be a Cauchy sequence in a complete metric space $(X,d)$. If $T$ is the set of points in the sequence show that $T$ is a bounded set.
As the space is complete, every Cauchy sequence is convergent and every convergent sequence is bounded. As $Tsubseteq{b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ then $T$ is bounded.
II) Is I) above still true if we do not insist that $(X,d)$ is complete?
If I) is not true then the sequence is not necessarily convergent in $X$ so it remains to show if every Cauchy sequence is bounded.
I devised the following proof:
As ${b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence then $forallepsilon>0exists m,n>Ninmathbb{N}$ such that $d(b_n,b_m)<epsilon$.
$max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}$ must be smaller than some $Linmathbb{R}$, which implies that the $max_{i,jin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_j)}leqslant max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}+d(b_n,b_m)<L+epsilon $, proving the Cauchy sequence is bounded.
Question:
Is my proof right? If not. What are the alternatives?
Thanks in advance!
general-topology metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
I) Let $b_1,b_2,...,b_n....$ be a Cauchy sequence in a complete metric space $(X,d)$. If $T$ is the set of points in the sequence show that $T$ is a bounded set.
As the space is complete, every Cauchy sequence is convergent and every convergent sequence is bounded. As $Tsubseteq{b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ then $T$ is bounded.
II) Is I) above still true if we do not insist that $(X,d)$ is complete?
If I) is not true then the sequence is not necessarily convergent in $X$ so it remains to show if every Cauchy sequence is bounded.
I devised the following proof:
As ${b_i:iinmathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence then $forallepsilon>0exists m,n>Ninmathbb{N}$ such that $d(b_n,b_m)<epsilon$.
$max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}$ must be smaller than some $Linmathbb{R}$, which implies that the $max_{i,jin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_j)}leqslant max_{iin mathbb{N}}{d(b_i,b_n)}+d(b_n,b_m)<L+epsilon $, proving the Cauchy sequence is bounded.
Question:
Is my proof right? If not. What are the alternatives?
Thanks in advance!
general-topology metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
general-topology metric-spaces cauchy-sequences
edited Nov 23 at 22:37
José Carlos Santos
144k20112212
144k20112212
asked Nov 23 at 22:28
Pedro Gomes
1,6042620
1,6042620
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1 Answer
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The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.
It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.
It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.
It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.
It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.
The proof is not correct. For instance, asserting that your sequence is a Cauchy sequence means that$$(forallvarepsilon>0)(exists inmathbb{N})(forall m,ninmathbb{N}):m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<varepsilon;tag1$$that is not what you wrote.
It follows from $(1)$ that there is a natural $N$ such that $m,ngeqslant Nimplies d(b_m,b_n)<1$. Therefore, each $b_n$, with $ngeqslant N$, belongs to the ball $B_1(x_N)$. So, the set ${b_n,|,ngeqslant N}$ is bounded. The set ${b_1,b_2,ldots,b_{N-1}}$ is also bounded, since it is finite. So, your set is bounded, since it is the union of two bounded sets.
answered Nov 23 at 22:36
José Carlos Santos
144k20112212
144k20112212
add a comment |
add a comment |
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