Some sort of commutativity of circulant matrices with a certain transformation












0












$begingroup$


Given a vector $v = (a_0, a_1, a_2, ... , a_n)$, we call a $k$-circulant matrix $C_k(v)$, where $k geq n$, the following $k*k$ matrix :
$$ C_k(v)= begin{bmatrix}
a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
0 & a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... \
cdot & & & & cdot & & \
& cdot & & & & cdot & \
& & cdot & & & & cdot \
a_3 & a_4 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
a_2 & a_3 & a_4 & ... & a_n & 0 & ...
end{bmatrix} $$

(basically, you pad the vector with zeros and then you form a circulant matrix with it.)



For simplicity, given two natural numbers $n,k$, define the block-matrix $$I_{n,k} = begin{bmatrix}
I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
end{bmatrix} $$

where $I_n$ repeats k times (I_n is the identity matrix of order $n$.)



I found out that, given a vector $v = (a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ of length $n$ and a natural number $k$, we have the following relation:
$$ C_n(v) cdot I_{n,k} = I_{n,k}cdot C_{nk}(v)$$



This really isn't that hard to prove, since if for the vector $v$ we consider the following matrices:
$$ B = begin{bmatrix}
0 & 0 & 0 & 0 &... & 0 \
a_n & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
a_{n - 1}& a_n & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
a_{n - 2} & a_{n-1} & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
& & cdot & & & \
& & &cdot & & \
& & & & cdot & \
a_{2} & a_{3} & ... & a_{n-1} & a_n& 0 \
end{bmatrix} $$



$$A = begin{bmatrix}
a_1 & a_2 & a_3 & ... & a_n \
0 & a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_{n-1} \
& & cdot \
& & & cdot \
& & & & cdot \
0 & 0 & ... & 0 & a_1
end{bmatrix}$$



we observe that $C_n(v) = A+B$,
$$C_{n,k} = begin{bmatrix}
A & B & 0 & 0 & ... & 0\
0 & A & B & 0 & ... & 0\
&& cdot \
&&& cdot \
&&&& cdot \
B & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & A
end{bmatrix}, $$



and so the relation to prove becomes
$$ [ A + B ] cdot begin{bmatrix}
I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}
I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix}
A & B & 0 & 0 & ... & 0\
0 & A & B & 0 & ... & 0\
&& cdot \
&&& cdot \
&&&& cdot \
B & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & A
end{bmatrix}, $$



which is obvious.



However, here comes the question: I have tested that given two vectors $v = (a_1, a_2, a_3, ... a_n) $ and $w = (b_1, b_2, ... , b_n)$, the following is also true:
$$ C_n(v) cdot C_n(w) cdot I_{n,k} = I_{n,k} cdot C_{nk}(v) cdot C_{nk}(w) $$



I haven't been able to prove this one; I know that the product of two circulant matrices is also a circulant matrix, but it doesn't seem like there is a vector $z = (c_1,c_2,...,c_n)$ such that $C_n(v) cdot C_n(w) = C_n(z)$ and $ C_{nk}(v) cdot C_{nk}(w) = C_{nk}(z)$.



Any ideas would be appreciated.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Given a vector $v = (a_0, a_1, a_2, ... , a_n)$, we call a $k$-circulant matrix $C_k(v)$, where $k geq n$, the following $k*k$ matrix :
    $$ C_k(v)= begin{bmatrix}
    a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
    0 & a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... \
    cdot & & & & cdot & & \
    & cdot & & & & cdot & \
    & & cdot & & & & cdot \
    a_3 & a_4 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
    a_2 & a_3 & a_4 & ... & a_n & 0 & ...
    end{bmatrix} $$

    (basically, you pad the vector with zeros and then you form a circulant matrix with it.)



    For simplicity, given two natural numbers $n,k$, define the block-matrix $$I_{n,k} = begin{bmatrix}
    I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
    end{bmatrix} $$

    where $I_n$ repeats k times (I_n is the identity matrix of order $n$.)



    I found out that, given a vector $v = (a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ of length $n$ and a natural number $k$, we have the following relation:
    $$ C_n(v) cdot I_{n,k} = I_{n,k}cdot C_{nk}(v)$$



    This really isn't that hard to prove, since if for the vector $v$ we consider the following matrices:
    $$ B = begin{bmatrix}
    0 & 0 & 0 & 0 &... & 0 \
    a_n & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
    a_{n - 1}& a_n & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
    a_{n - 2} & a_{n-1} & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
    & & cdot & & & \
    & & &cdot & & \
    & & & & cdot & \
    a_{2} & a_{3} & ... & a_{n-1} & a_n& 0 \
    end{bmatrix} $$



    $$A = begin{bmatrix}
    a_1 & a_2 & a_3 & ... & a_n \
    0 & a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_{n-1} \
    & & cdot \
    & & & cdot \
    & & & & cdot \
    0 & 0 & ... & 0 & a_1
    end{bmatrix}$$



    we observe that $C_n(v) = A+B$,
    $$C_{n,k} = begin{bmatrix}
    A & B & 0 & 0 & ... & 0\
    0 & A & B & 0 & ... & 0\
    && cdot \
    &&& cdot \
    &&&& cdot \
    B & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & A
    end{bmatrix}, $$



    and so the relation to prove becomes
    $$ [ A + B ] cdot begin{bmatrix}
    I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
    end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}
    I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
    end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix}
    A & B & 0 & 0 & ... & 0\
    0 & A & B & 0 & ... & 0\
    && cdot \
    &&& cdot \
    &&&& cdot \
    B & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & A
    end{bmatrix}, $$



    which is obvious.



    However, here comes the question: I have tested that given two vectors $v = (a_1, a_2, a_3, ... a_n) $ and $w = (b_1, b_2, ... , b_n)$, the following is also true:
    $$ C_n(v) cdot C_n(w) cdot I_{n,k} = I_{n,k} cdot C_{nk}(v) cdot C_{nk}(w) $$



    I haven't been able to prove this one; I know that the product of two circulant matrices is also a circulant matrix, but it doesn't seem like there is a vector $z = (c_1,c_2,...,c_n)$ such that $C_n(v) cdot C_n(w) = C_n(z)$ and $ C_{nk}(v) cdot C_{nk}(w) = C_{nk}(z)$.



    Any ideas would be appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Given a vector $v = (a_0, a_1, a_2, ... , a_n)$, we call a $k$-circulant matrix $C_k(v)$, where $k geq n$, the following $k*k$ matrix :
      $$ C_k(v)= begin{bmatrix}
      a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
      0 & a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... \
      cdot & & & & cdot & & \
      & cdot & & & & cdot & \
      & & cdot & & & & cdot \
      a_3 & a_4 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
      a_2 & a_3 & a_4 & ... & a_n & 0 & ...
      end{bmatrix} $$

      (basically, you pad the vector with zeros and then you form a circulant matrix with it.)



      For simplicity, given two natural numbers $n,k$, define the block-matrix $$I_{n,k} = begin{bmatrix}
      I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
      end{bmatrix} $$

      where $I_n$ repeats k times (I_n is the identity matrix of order $n$.)



      I found out that, given a vector $v = (a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ of length $n$ and a natural number $k$, we have the following relation:
      $$ C_n(v) cdot I_{n,k} = I_{n,k}cdot C_{nk}(v)$$



      This really isn't that hard to prove, since if for the vector $v$ we consider the following matrices:
      $$ B = begin{bmatrix}
      0 & 0 & 0 & 0 &... & 0 \
      a_n & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
      a_{n - 1}& a_n & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
      a_{n - 2} & a_{n-1} & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
      & & cdot & & & \
      & & &cdot & & \
      & & & & cdot & \
      a_{2} & a_{3} & ... & a_{n-1} & a_n& 0 \
      end{bmatrix} $$



      $$A = begin{bmatrix}
      a_1 & a_2 & a_3 & ... & a_n \
      0 & a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_{n-1} \
      & & cdot \
      & & & cdot \
      & & & & cdot \
      0 & 0 & ... & 0 & a_1
      end{bmatrix}$$



      we observe that $C_n(v) = A+B$,
      $$C_{n,k} = begin{bmatrix}
      A & B & 0 & 0 & ... & 0\
      0 & A & B & 0 & ... & 0\
      && cdot \
      &&& cdot \
      &&&& cdot \
      B & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & A
      end{bmatrix}, $$



      and so the relation to prove becomes
      $$ [ A + B ] cdot begin{bmatrix}
      I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
      end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}
      I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
      end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix}
      A & B & 0 & 0 & ... & 0\
      0 & A & B & 0 & ... & 0\
      && cdot \
      &&& cdot \
      &&&& cdot \
      B & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & A
      end{bmatrix}, $$



      which is obvious.



      However, here comes the question: I have tested that given two vectors $v = (a_1, a_2, a_3, ... a_n) $ and $w = (b_1, b_2, ... , b_n)$, the following is also true:
      $$ C_n(v) cdot C_n(w) cdot I_{n,k} = I_{n,k} cdot C_{nk}(v) cdot C_{nk}(w) $$



      I haven't been able to prove this one; I know that the product of two circulant matrices is also a circulant matrix, but it doesn't seem like there is a vector $z = (c_1,c_2,...,c_n)$ such that $C_n(v) cdot C_n(w) = C_n(z)$ and $ C_{nk}(v) cdot C_{nk}(w) = C_{nk}(z)$.



      Any ideas would be appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Given a vector $v = (a_0, a_1, a_2, ... , a_n)$, we call a $k$-circulant matrix $C_k(v)$, where $k geq n$, the following $k*k$ matrix :
      $$ C_k(v)= begin{bmatrix}
      a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
      0 & a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... \
      cdot & & & & cdot & & \
      & cdot & & & & cdot & \
      & & cdot & & & & cdot \
      a_3 & a_4 & ... & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
      a_2 & a_3 & a_4 & ... & a_n & 0 & ...
      end{bmatrix} $$

      (basically, you pad the vector with zeros and then you form a circulant matrix with it.)



      For simplicity, given two natural numbers $n,k$, define the block-matrix $$I_{n,k} = begin{bmatrix}
      I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
      end{bmatrix} $$

      where $I_n$ repeats k times (I_n is the identity matrix of order $n$.)



      I found out that, given a vector $v = (a_1,a_2,...,a_n)$ of length $n$ and a natural number $k$, we have the following relation:
      $$ C_n(v) cdot I_{n,k} = I_{n,k}cdot C_{nk}(v)$$



      This really isn't that hard to prove, since if for the vector $v$ we consider the following matrices:
      $$ B = begin{bmatrix}
      0 & 0 & 0 & 0 &... & 0 \
      a_n & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
      a_{n - 1}& a_n & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
      a_{n - 2} & a_{n-1} & a_n & 0 & ... & 0 \
      & & cdot & & & \
      & & &cdot & & \
      & & & & cdot & \
      a_{2} & a_{3} & ... & a_{n-1} & a_n& 0 \
      end{bmatrix} $$



      $$A = begin{bmatrix}
      a_1 & a_2 & a_3 & ... & a_n \
      0 & a_1 & a_2 & ... & a_{n-1} \
      & & cdot \
      & & & cdot \
      & & & & cdot \
      0 & 0 & ... & 0 & a_1
      end{bmatrix}$$



      we observe that $C_n(v) = A+B$,
      $$C_{n,k} = begin{bmatrix}
      A & B & 0 & 0 & ... & 0\
      0 & A & B & 0 & ... & 0\
      && cdot \
      &&& cdot \
      &&&& cdot \
      B & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & A
      end{bmatrix}, $$



      and so the relation to prove becomes
      $$ [ A + B ] cdot begin{bmatrix}
      I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
      end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix}
      I_n & I_n & ... & I_n
      end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix}
      A & B & 0 & 0 & ... & 0\
      0 & A & B & 0 & ... & 0\
      && cdot \
      &&& cdot \
      &&&& cdot \
      B & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & A
      end{bmatrix}, $$



      which is obvious.



      However, here comes the question: I have tested that given two vectors $v = (a_1, a_2, a_3, ... a_n) $ and $w = (b_1, b_2, ... , b_n)$, the following is also true:
      $$ C_n(v) cdot C_n(w) cdot I_{n,k} = I_{n,k} cdot C_{nk}(v) cdot C_{nk}(w) $$



      I haven't been able to prove this one; I know that the product of two circulant matrices is also a circulant matrix, but it doesn't seem like there is a vector $z = (c_1,c_2,...,c_n)$ such that $C_n(v) cdot C_n(w) = C_n(z)$ and $ C_{nk}(v) cdot C_{nk}(w) = C_{nk}(z)$.



      Any ideas would be appreciated.







      linear-algebra linear-transformations circulant-matrices






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      asked Dec 14 '18 at 1:10









      Tanny SiebenTanny Sieben

      34318




      34318






















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          $begingroup$

          I figured it out. Basically we have
          $$C_n(w) cdot begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot C_{nk} (w) $$



          By splitting $C_{nk} (w) $ into matrices $X$ and $Y$, we want to show that
          $$begin{bmatrix} C_{n}(w)C_n(v) & C_{n}(w) C_n(v) & ... & C_{n}(w)C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix} X & Y & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ 0 & X & Y & 0 & ... & 0 \ &&cdot \ &&&cdot \ &&&&cdot \ Y & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & X end{bmatrix} ,$$
          which is obvious, since $ X+Y = C_n(w)$,






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            $begingroup$

            I figured it out. Basically we have
            $$C_n(w) cdot begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot C_{nk} (w) $$



            By splitting $C_{nk} (w) $ into matrices $X$ and $Y$, we want to show that
            $$begin{bmatrix} C_{n}(w)C_n(v) & C_{n}(w) C_n(v) & ... & C_{n}(w)C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix} X & Y & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ 0 & X & Y & 0 & ... & 0 \ &&cdot \ &&&cdot \ &&&&cdot \ Y & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & X end{bmatrix} ,$$
            which is obvious, since $ X+Y = C_n(w)$,






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              0












              $begingroup$

              I figured it out. Basically we have
              $$C_n(w) cdot begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot C_{nk} (w) $$



              By splitting $C_{nk} (w) $ into matrices $X$ and $Y$, we want to show that
              $$begin{bmatrix} C_{n}(w)C_n(v) & C_{n}(w) C_n(v) & ... & C_{n}(w)C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix} X & Y & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ 0 & X & Y & 0 & ... & 0 \ &&cdot \ &&&cdot \ &&&&cdot \ Y & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & X end{bmatrix} ,$$
              which is obvious, since $ X+Y = C_n(w)$,






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                I figured it out. Basically we have
                $$C_n(w) cdot begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot C_{nk} (w) $$



                By splitting $C_{nk} (w) $ into matrices $X$ and $Y$, we want to show that
                $$begin{bmatrix} C_{n}(w)C_n(v) & C_{n}(w) C_n(v) & ... & C_{n}(w)C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix} X & Y & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ 0 & X & Y & 0 & ... & 0 \ &&cdot \ &&&cdot \ &&&&cdot \ Y & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & X end{bmatrix} ,$$
                which is obvious, since $ X+Y = C_n(w)$,






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                I figured it out. Basically we have
                $$C_n(w) cdot begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot C_{nk} (w) $$



                By splitting $C_{nk} (w) $ into matrices $X$ and $Y$, we want to show that
                $$begin{bmatrix} C_{n}(w)C_n(v) & C_{n}(w) C_n(v) & ... & C_{n}(w)C_n(v) end{bmatrix} = begin{bmatrix} C_n(v) & C_n(v) & ... & C_n(v) end{bmatrix} cdot begin{bmatrix} X & Y & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \ 0 & X & Y & 0 & ... & 0 \ &&cdot \ &&&cdot \ &&&&cdot \ Y & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & X end{bmatrix} ,$$
                which is obvious, since $ X+Y = C_n(w)$,







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 14 '18 at 8:02









                Tanny SiebenTanny Sieben

                34318




                34318






























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