Prove $H$ is a proper normal subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is generated by ${[x,y] mid x,y in G} cup {x^p mid x in...












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I am trying to solve the following problem:




Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite $p$-group, where $p$ is a prime, and let $H$ be the subgroup of $G$ generated by the set ${[x,y] mid x,y in G} cup {x^p mid x in G}$.



Prove that $H$ is a proper normal subgroup of $G$.




It is not hard to see that $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$. Indeed, any element of $g in G$ commutes with any element of the commutator. Moreover, $gx^pg^{-1} = (gxg^{-1})^p$. Since any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$, the same is true for $H$. However, I do not know how to prove $H neq G$.



Any thoughts?










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    1












    $begingroup$


    I am trying to solve the following problem:




    Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite $p$-group, where $p$ is a prime, and let $H$ be the subgroup of $G$ generated by the set ${[x,y] mid x,y in G} cup {x^p mid x in G}$.



    Prove that $H$ is a proper normal subgroup of $G$.




    It is not hard to see that $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$. Indeed, any element of $g in G$ commutes with any element of the commutator. Moreover, $gx^pg^{-1} = (gxg^{-1})^p$. Since any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$, the same is true for $H$. However, I do not know how to prove $H neq G$.



    Any thoughts?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      I am trying to solve the following problem:




      Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite $p$-group, where $p$ is a prime, and let $H$ be the subgroup of $G$ generated by the set ${[x,y] mid x,y in G} cup {x^p mid x in G}$.



      Prove that $H$ is a proper normal subgroup of $G$.




      It is not hard to see that $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$. Indeed, any element of $g in G$ commutes with any element of the commutator. Moreover, $gx^pg^{-1} = (gxg^{-1})^p$. Since any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$, the same is true for $H$. However, I do not know how to prove $H neq G$.



      Any thoughts?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am trying to solve the following problem:




      Let $G$ be a nontrivial finite $p$-group, where $p$ is a prime, and let $H$ be the subgroup of $G$ generated by the set ${[x,y] mid x,y in G} cup {x^p mid x in G}$.



      Prove that $H$ is a proper normal subgroup of $G$.




      It is not hard to see that $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$. Indeed, any element of $g in G$ commutes with any element of the commutator. Moreover, $gx^pg^{-1} = (gxg^{-1})^p$. Since any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$, the same is true for $H$. However, I do not know how to prove $H neq G$.



      Any thoughts?







      abstract-algebra group-theory finite-groups normal-subgroups nilpotent-groups






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 30 '18 at 13:17









      Shaun

      9,690113684




      9,690113684










      asked Dec 29 '18 at 20:32









      PeterPeter

      1106




      1106






















          2 Answers
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          $begingroup$

          Note first that $[G,G]$ is a proper subgroup of $G$ and that $H/[G,G]$ is just the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers (why?). So, we may replace $G$ with $G/[G,G]$ and thus assume $G$ is abelian. But if $G$ is abelian then $H$ is just the set of $p$th powers, and so any element of $G$ of maximal order will not be in $H$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            We can say $H/[G,G]$ is the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers because $p$ divides $G/[G,G]$; so, Cauchy's theorem ensures there is an element of order $p$ in $G/[G,G]$. Am I right @EricWofsey?
            $endgroup$
            – Peter
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:01






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Peter: No, that's totally wrong. Why would it be relevant whether there is an element of order $p$? To prove the claim about $H/[G,G]$, you'll need to use the definition of $H$.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:02










          • $begingroup$
            you are totally right!, but I don't see why $H neq [G,G]$. This is also irrelevant as I was asked to prove $H$ is proper; so, it does not matter whether $H neq [G,G]$ or not but I am just curious.
            $endgroup$
            – Peter
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:06








          • 2




            $begingroup$
            It is entirely possible that $H=[G,G]$; I never said it wasn't.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:07



















          2












          $begingroup$

          It's not true that any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$; rather, an element of $G$ conjugates any generator of $H$ to another generator of $H$.



          As for why $H<G$, note that $G'le H$. Now in $G/G'$, which is abelian, the subgroup generated by $p$th powers on one hand is proper. In fact, it's just the $p$th powers and so excludes all elements of maximal order. On the other hand, it's clearly equal to $H/G'$. Thus, since $H/G'<G/G'$ we have $H<G$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











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            2 Answers
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            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            active

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            4












            $begingroup$

            Note first that $[G,G]$ is a proper subgroup of $G$ and that $H/[G,G]$ is just the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers (why?). So, we may replace $G$ with $G/[G,G]$ and thus assume $G$ is abelian. But if $G$ is abelian then $H$ is just the set of $p$th powers, and so any element of $G$ of maximal order will not be in $H$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              We can say $H/[G,G]$ is the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers because $p$ divides $G/[G,G]$; so, Cauchy's theorem ensures there is an element of order $p$ in $G/[G,G]$. Am I right @EricWofsey?
              $endgroup$
              – Peter
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:01






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              @Peter: No, that's totally wrong. Why would it be relevant whether there is an element of order $p$? To prove the claim about $H/[G,G]$, you'll need to use the definition of $H$.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:02










            • $begingroup$
              you are totally right!, but I don't see why $H neq [G,G]$. This is also irrelevant as I was asked to prove $H$ is proper; so, it does not matter whether $H neq [G,G]$ or not but I am just curious.
              $endgroup$
              – Peter
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:06








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              It is entirely possible that $H=[G,G]$; I never said it wasn't.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:07
















            4












            $begingroup$

            Note first that $[G,G]$ is a proper subgroup of $G$ and that $H/[G,G]$ is just the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers (why?). So, we may replace $G$ with $G/[G,G]$ and thus assume $G$ is abelian. But if $G$ is abelian then $H$ is just the set of $p$th powers, and so any element of $G$ of maximal order will not be in $H$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              We can say $H/[G,G]$ is the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers because $p$ divides $G/[G,G]$; so, Cauchy's theorem ensures there is an element of order $p$ in $G/[G,G]$. Am I right @EricWofsey?
              $endgroup$
              – Peter
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:01






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              @Peter: No, that's totally wrong. Why would it be relevant whether there is an element of order $p$? To prove the claim about $H/[G,G]$, you'll need to use the definition of $H$.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:02










            • $begingroup$
              you are totally right!, but I don't see why $H neq [G,G]$. This is also irrelevant as I was asked to prove $H$ is proper; so, it does not matter whether $H neq [G,G]$ or not but I am just curious.
              $endgroup$
              – Peter
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:06








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              It is entirely possible that $H=[G,G]$; I never said it wasn't.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:07














            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            Note first that $[G,G]$ is a proper subgroup of $G$ and that $H/[G,G]$ is just the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers (why?). So, we may replace $G$ with $G/[G,G]$ and thus assume $G$ is abelian. But if $G$ is abelian then $H$ is just the set of $p$th powers, and so any element of $G$ of maximal order will not be in $H$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Note first that $[G,G]$ is a proper subgroup of $G$ and that $H/[G,G]$ is just the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers (why?). So, we may replace $G$ with $G/[G,G]$ and thus assume $G$ is abelian. But if $G$ is abelian then $H$ is just the set of $p$th powers, and so any element of $G$ of maximal order will not be in $H$.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Dec 29 '18 at 20:37









            Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

            190k14216348




            190k14216348












            • $begingroup$
              We can say $H/[G,G]$ is the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers because $p$ divides $G/[G,G]$; so, Cauchy's theorem ensures there is an element of order $p$ in $G/[G,G]$. Am I right @EricWofsey?
              $endgroup$
              – Peter
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:01






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              @Peter: No, that's totally wrong. Why would it be relevant whether there is an element of order $p$? To prove the claim about $H/[G,G]$, you'll need to use the definition of $H$.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:02










            • $begingroup$
              you are totally right!, but I don't see why $H neq [G,G]$. This is also irrelevant as I was asked to prove $H$ is proper; so, it does not matter whether $H neq [G,G]$ or not but I am just curious.
              $endgroup$
              – Peter
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:06








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              It is entirely possible that $H=[G,G]$; I never said it wasn't.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:07


















            • $begingroup$
              We can say $H/[G,G]$ is the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers because $p$ divides $G/[G,G]$; so, Cauchy's theorem ensures there is an element of order $p$ in $G/[G,G]$. Am I right @EricWofsey?
              $endgroup$
              – Peter
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:01






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              @Peter: No, that's totally wrong. Why would it be relevant whether there is an element of order $p$? To prove the claim about $H/[G,G]$, you'll need to use the definition of $H$.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:02










            • $begingroup$
              you are totally right!, but I don't see why $H neq [G,G]$. This is also irrelevant as I was asked to prove $H$ is proper; so, it does not matter whether $H neq [G,G]$ or not but I am just curious.
              $endgroup$
              – Peter
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:06








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              It is entirely possible that $H=[G,G]$; I never said it wasn't.
              $endgroup$
              – Eric Wofsey
              Dec 30 '18 at 0:07
















            $begingroup$
            We can say $H/[G,G]$ is the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers because $p$ divides $G/[G,G]$; so, Cauchy's theorem ensures there is an element of order $p$ in $G/[G,G]$. Am I right @EricWofsey?
            $endgroup$
            – Peter
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:01




            $begingroup$
            We can say $H/[G,G]$ is the subgroup of $G/[G,G]$ generated by $p$th powers because $p$ divides $G/[G,G]$; so, Cauchy's theorem ensures there is an element of order $p$ in $G/[G,G]$. Am I right @EricWofsey?
            $endgroup$
            – Peter
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:01




            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            @Peter: No, that's totally wrong. Why would it be relevant whether there is an element of order $p$? To prove the claim about $H/[G,G]$, you'll need to use the definition of $H$.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:02




            $begingroup$
            @Peter: No, that's totally wrong. Why would it be relevant whether there is an element of order $p$? To prove the claim about $H/[G,G]$, you'll need to use the definition of $H$.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:02












            $begingroup$
            you are totally right!, but I don't see why $H neq [G,G]$. This is also irrelevant as I was asked to prove $H$ is proper; so, it does not matter whether $H neq [G,G]$ or not but I am just curious.
            $endgroup$
            – Peter
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:06






            $begingroup$
            you are totally right!, but I don't see why $H neq [G,G]$. This is also irrelevant as I was asked to prove $H$ is proper; so, it does not matter whether $H neq [G,G]$ or not but I am just curious.
            $endgroup$
            – Peter
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:06






            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            It is entirely possible that $H=[G,G]$; I never said it wasn't.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:07




            $begingroup$
            It is entirely possible that $H=[G,G]$; I never said it wasn't.
            $endgroup$
            – Eric Wofsey
            Dec 30 '18 at 0:07











            2












            $begingroup$

            It's not true that any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$; rather, an element of $G$ conjugates any generator of $H$ to another generator of $H$.



            As for why $H<G$, note that $G'le H$. Now in $G/G'$, which is abelian, the subgroup generated by $p$th powers on one hand is proper. In fact, it's just the $p$th powers and so excludes all elements of maximal order. On the other hand, it's clearly equal to $H/G'$. Thus, since $H/G'<G/G'$ we have $H<G$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$


















              2












              $begingroup$

              It's not true that any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$; rather, an element of $G$ conjugates any generator of $H$ to another generator of $H$.



              As for why $H<G$, note that $G'le H$. Now in $G/G'$, which is abelian, the subgroup generated by $p$th powers on one hand is proper. In fact, it's just the $p$th powers and so excludes all elements of maximal order. On the other hand, it's clearly equal to $H/G'$. Thus, since $H/G'<G/G'$ we have $H<G$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                It's not true that any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$; rather, an element of $G$ conjugates any generator of $H$ to another generator of $H$.



                As for why $H<G$, note that $G'le H$. Now in $G/G'$, which is abelian, the subgroup generated by $p$th powers on one hand is proper. In fact, it's just the $p$th powers and so excludes all elements of maximal order. On the other hand, it's clearly equal to $H/G'$. Thus, since $H/G'<G/G'$ we have $H<G$.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                It's not true that any generator of $H$ commutes with any element of $G$; rather, an element of $G$ conjugates any generator of $H$ to another generator of $H$.



                As for why $H<G$, note that $G'le H$. Now in $G/G'$, which is abelian, the subgroup generated by $p$th powers on one hand is proper. In fact, it's just the $p$th powers and so excludes all elements of maximal order. On the other hand, it's clearly equal to $H/G'$. Thus, since $H/G'<G/G'$ we have $H<G$.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Dec 30 '18 at 13:15









                Shaun

                9,690113684




                9,690113684










                answered Dec 29 '18 at 20:42









                C MonsourC Monsour

                6,3141326




                6,3141326






























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