Cayley-Hamilton says that evaluating an endomorphism's characteristic polynomial over that endomorphism gives...












0












$begingroup$


Given an endomorphism $f$ of a vector space $V$, its characteristic polynomial, say $P(x)$, is defined as follows: $P(x) = det(f -xI)$, where $I$ is the identity endomorphism. It is well known that, when we evaluate over $f$, we get $P(f) = 0$, as a consequence of Cayley-Hamilton's theorem.



But, working with the expression directly, we get
$$P(f) = det(f - fI) = det(f - f) = det(0) = 0$$
even without Cayley-Hamilton. What's wrong about this?










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    see Wikipedia
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Jan 5 at 17:11










  • $begingroup$
    Note: This argument is not too far from being correct(able) though. Working with matrices: The argument above is nearly all that is required to show that CH holds for an upper triangular matrix. The general case is obtained by extending the ground field to an algebraic closure of it. When the field is algebraically closed, all matrices are similar to upper triangular ones, and CH follows easily.
    $endgroup$
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jan 5 at 18:21










  • $begingroup$
    @IttayWeiss I don't follow. Yes, CH follows easily if the matrix is triangular, but how is this related to the argument in question?
    $endgroup$
    – user1551
    Jan 5 at 18:53










  • $begingroup$
    @user1551 Sorry, I was perhaps unclear. When the characteristic polynomial splits, computing f(A) for an upper triangular matrix is just plugging in $A$ for $x$ in the decomposition of $f$ and computing. That fact that you get $0$ is easy. I see some resemblance to OP's faulty argument here: You just substitute $A$ for $x$, and the computation is nearly just evaluating at each eigenvalue.
    $endgroup$
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jan 5 at 19:09
















0












$begingroup$


Given an endomorphism $f$ of a vector space $V$, its characteristic polynomial, say $P(x)$, is defined as follows: $P(x) = det(f -xI)$, where $I$ is the identity endomorphism. It is well known that, when we evaluate over $f$, we get $P(f) = 0$, as a consequence of Cayley-Hamilton's theorem.



But, working with the expression directly, we get
$$P(f) = det(f - fI) = det(f - f) = det(0) = 0$$
even without Cayley-Hamilton. What's wrong about this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    see Wikipedia
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Jan 5 at 17:11










  • $begingroup$
    Note: This argument is not too far from being correct(able) though. Working with matrices: The argument above is nearly all that is required to show that CH holds for an upper triangular matrix. The general case is obtained by extending the ground field to an algebraic closure of it. When the field is algebraically closed, all matrices are similar to upper triangular ones, and CH follows easily.
    $endgroup$
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jan 5 at 18:21










  • $begingroup$
    @IttayWeiss I don't follow. Yes, CH follows easily if the matrix is triangular, but how is this related to the argument in question?
    $endgroup$
    – user1551
    Jan 5 at 18:53










  • $begingroup$
    @user1551 Sorry, I was perhaps unclear. When the characteristic polynomial splits, computing f(A) for an upper triangular matrix is just plugging in $A$ for $x$ in the decomposition of $f$ and computing. That fact that you get $0$ is easy. I see some resemblance to OP's faulty argument here: You just substitute $A$ for $x$, and the computation is nearly just evaluating at each eigenvalue.
    $endgroup$
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jan 5 at 19:09














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Given an endomorphism $f$ of a vector space $V$, its characteristic polynomial, say $P(x)$, is defined as follows: $P(x) = det(f -xI)$, where $I$ is the identity endomorphism. It is well known that, when we evaluate over $f$, we get $P(f) = 0$, as a consequence of Cayley-Hamilton's theorem.



But, working with the expression directly, we get
$$P(f) = det(f - fI) = det(f - f) = det(0) = 0$$
even without Cayley-Hamilton. What's wrong about this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Given an endomorphism $f$ of a vector space $V$, its characteristic polynomial, say $P(x)$, is defined as follows: $P(x) = det(f -xI)$, where $I$ is the identity endomorphism. It is well known that, when we evaluate over $f$, we get $P(f) = 0$, as a consequence of Cayley-Hamilton's theorem.



But, working with the expression directly, we get
$$P(f) = det(f - fI) = det(f - f) = det(0) = 0$$
even without Cayley-Hamilton. What's wrong about this?







linear-algebra alternative-proof cayley-hamilton






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 5 at 18:11









José Carlos Santos

173k23133241




173k23133241










asked Jan 5 at 16:59









math_noobmath_noob

13




13








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    see Wikipedia
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Jan 5 at 17:11










  • $begingroup$
    Note: This argument is not too far from being correct(able) though. Working with matrices: The argument above is nearly all that is required to show that CH holds for an upper triangular matrix. The general case is obtained by extending the ground field to an algebraic closure of it. When the field is algebraically closed, all matrices are similar to upper triangular ones, and CH follows easily.
    $endgroup$
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jan 5 at 18:21










  • $begingroup$
    @IttayWeiss I don't follow. Yes, CH follows easily if the matrix is triangular, but how is this related to the argument in question?
    $endgroup$
    – user1551
    Jan 5 at 18:53










  • $begingroup$
    @user1551 Sorry, I was perhaps unclear. When the characteristic polynomial splits, computing f(A) for an upper triangular matrix is just plugging in $A$ for $x$ in the decomposition of $f$ and computing. That fact that you get $0$ is easy. I see some resemblance to OP's faulty argument here: You just substitute $A$ for $x$, and the computation is nearly just evaluating at each eigenvalue.
    $endgroup$
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jan 5 at 19:09














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    see Wikipedia
    $endgroup$
    – 0x539
    Jan 5 at 17:11










  • $begingroup$
    Note: This argument is not too far from being correct(able) though. Working with matrices: The argument above is nearly all that is required to show that CH holds for an upper triangular matrix. The general case is obtained by extending the ground field to an algebraic closure of it. When the field is algebraically closed, all matrices are similar to upper triangular ones, and CH follows easily.
    $endgroup$
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jan 5 at 18:21










  • $begingroup$
    @IttayWeiss I don't follow. Yes, CH follows easily if the matrix is triangular, but how is this related to the argument in question?
    $endgroup$
    – user1551
    Jan 5 at 18:53










  • $begingroup$
    @user1551 Sorry, I was perhaps unclear. When the characteristic polynomial splits, computing f(A) for an upper triangular matrix is just plugging in $A$ for $x$ in the decomposition of $f$ and computing. That fact that you get $0$ is easy. I see some resemblance to OP's faulty argument here: You just substitute $A$ for $x$, and the computation is nearly just evaluating at each eigenvalue.
    $endgroup$
    – Ittay Weiss
    Jan 5 at 19:09








2




2




$begingroup$
see Wikipedia
$endgroup$
– 0x539
Jan 5 at 17:11




$begingroup$
see Wikipedia
$endgroup$
– 0x539
Jan 5 at 17:11












$begingroup$
Note: This argument is not too far from being correct(able) though. Working with matrices: The argument above is nearly all that is required to show that CH holds for an upper triangular matrix. The general case is obtained by extending the ground field to an algebraic closure of it. When the field is algebraically closed, all matrices are similar to upper triangular ones, and CH follows easily.
$endgroup$
– Ittay Weiss
Jan 5 at 18:21




$begingroup$
Note: This argument is not too far from being correct(able) though. Working with matrices: The argument above is nearly all that is required to show that CH holds for an upper triangular matrix. The general case is obtained by extending the ground field to an algebraic closure of it. When the field is algebraically closed, all matrices are similar to upper triangular ones, and CH follows easily.
$endgroup$
– Ittay Weiss
Jan 5 at 18:21












$begingroup$
@IttayWeiss I don't follow. Yes, CH follows easily if the matrix is triangular, but how is this related to the argument in question?
$endgroup$
– user1551
Jan 5 at 18:53




$begingroup$
@IttayWeiss I don't follow. Yes, CH follows easily if the matrix is triangular, but how is this related to the argument in question?
$endgroup$
– user1551
Jan 5 at 18:53












$begingroup$
@user1551 Sorry, I was perhaps unclear. When the characteristic polynomial splits, computing f(A) for an upper triangular matrix is just plugging in $A$ for $x$ in the decomposition of $f$ and computing. That fact that you get $0$ is easy. I see some resemblance to OP's faulty argument here: You just substitute $A$ for $x$, and the computation is nearly just evaluating at each eigenvalue.
$endgroup$
– Ittay Weiss
Jan 5 at 19:09




$begingroup$
@user1551 Sorry, I was perhaps unclear. When the characteristic polynomial splits, computing f(A) for an upper triangular matrix is just plugging in $A$ for $x$ in the decomposition of $f$ and computing. That fact that you get $0$ is easy. I see some resemblance to OP's faulty argument here: You just substitute $A$ for $x$, and the computation is nearly just evaluating at each eigenvalue.
$endgroup$
– Ittay Weiss
Jan 5 at 19:09










1 Answer
1






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oldest

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$begingroup$

What's wrong is that $P(x)=det(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ is a polynomial. Yes, you can compute $P(x_0)$ for a number $x_0$ by computing $det(f-x_0operatorname{Id})$, but $f$ is not a number; it's an endomorphism.



Conseder, for instance, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$. By your argument, $Q(f)=0$ too. But, in fact, since $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$, you actually have $Q(f)=(1-n)operatorname{tr}(f)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    A slight correction to this answer: it should be $Q(f) = tr(f) - nf$. @math_noob: If you substitute $f$ first then take the determinant, then the answer you get will be a scalar, but if you first take the determinant to get a polynomial in $x$, then substitute $f$, the answer is a matrix. So there is no reason to expect them to be the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Ted
    Jan 5 at 17:42












  • $begingroup$
    @Ted Since I defined $Q(x)$ as $operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ and since $operatorname{tr}$ is linear and $operatorname{tr}(operatorname{Id})=n$, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 5 at 18:10














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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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3












$begingroup$

What's wrong is that $P(x)=det(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ is a polynomial. Yes, you can compute $P(x_0)$ for a number $x_0$ by computing $det(f-x_0operatorname{Id})$, but $f$ is not a number; it's an endomorphism.



Conseder, for instance, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$. By your argument, $Q(f)=0$ too. But, in fact, since $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$, you actually have $Q(f)=(1-n)operatorname{tr}(f)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    A slight correction to this answer: it should be $Q(f) = tr(f) - nf$. @math_noob: If you substitute $f$ first then take the determinant, then the answer you get will be a scalar, but if you first take the determinant to get a polynomial in $x$, then substitute $f$, the answer is a matrix. So there is no reason to expect them to be the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Ted
    Jan 5 at 17:42












  • $begingroup$
    @Ted Since I defined $Q(x)$ as $operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ and since $operatorname{tr}$ is linear and $operatorname{tr}(operatorname{Id})=n$, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 5 at 18:10


















3












$begingroup$

What's wrong is that $P(x)=det(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ is a polynomial. Yes, you can compute $P(x_0)$ for a number $x_0$ by computing $det(f-x_0operatorname{Id})$, but $f$ is not a number; it's an endomorphism.



Conseder, for instance, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$. By your argument, $Q(f)=0$ too. But, in fact, since $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$, you actually have $Q(f)=(1-n)operatorname{tr}(f)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    A slight correction to this answer: it should be $Q(f) = tr(f) - nf$. @math_noob: If you substitute $f$ first then take the determinant, then the answer you get will be a scalar, but if you first take the determinant to get a polynomial in $x$, then substitute $f$, the answer is a matrix. So there is no reason to expect them to be the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Ted
    Jan 5 at 17:42












  • $begingroup$
    @Ted Since I defined $Q(x)$ as $operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ and since $operatorname{tr}$ is linear and $operatorname{tr}(operatorname{Id})=n$, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 5 at 18:10
















3












3








3





$begingroup$

What's wrong is that $P(x)=det(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ is a polynomial. Yes, you can compute $P(x_0)$ for a number $x_0$ by computing $det(f-x_0operatorname{Id})$, but $f$ is not a number; it's an endomorphism.



Conseder, for instance, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$. By your argument, $Q(f)=0$ too. But, in fact, since $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$, you actually have $Q(f)=(1-n)operatorname{tr}(f)$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



What's wrong is that $P(x)=det(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ is a polynomial. Yes, you can compute $P(x_0)$ for a number $x_0$ by computing $det(f-x_0operatorname{Id})$, but $f$ is not a number; it's an endomorphism.



Conseder, for instance, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$. By your argument, $Q(f)=0$ too. But, in fact, since $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$, you actually have $Q(f)=(1-n)operatorname{tr}(f)$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 5 at 17:10

























answered Jan 5 at 17:04









José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

173k23133241




173k23133241












  • $begingroup$
    A slight correction to this answer: it should be $Q(f) = tr(f) - nf$. @math_noob: If you substitute $f$ first then take the determinant, then the answer you get will be a scalar, but if you first take the determinant to get a polynomial in $x$, then substitute $f$, the answer is a matrix. So there is no reason to expect them to be the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Ted
    Jan 5 at 17:42












  • $begingroup$
    @Ted Since I defined $Q(x)$ as $operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ and since $operatorname{tr}$ is linear and $operatorname{tr}(operatorname{Id})=n$, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 5 at 18:10




















  • $begingroup$
    A slight correction to this answer: it should be $Q(f) = tr(f) - nf$. @math_noob: If you substitute $f$ first then take the determinant, then the answer you get will be a scalar, but if you first take the determinant to get a polynomial in $x$, then substitute $f$, the answer is a matrix. So there is no reason to expect them to be the same.
    $endgroup$
    – Ted
    Jan 5 at 17:42












  • $begingroup$
    @Ted Since I defined $Q(x)$ as $operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ and since $operatorname{tr}$ is linear and $operatorname{tr}(operatorname{Id})=n$, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Jan 5 at 18:10


















$begingroup$
A slight correction to this answer: it should be $Q(f) = tr(f) - nf$. @math_noob: If you substitute $f$ first then take the determinant, then the answer you get will be a scalar, but if you first take the determinant to get a polynomial in $x$, then substitute $f$, the answer is a matrix. So there is no reason to expect them to be the same.
$endgroup$
– Ted
Jan 5 at 17:42






$begingroup$
A slight correction to this answer: it should be $Q(f) = tr(f) - nf$. @math_noob: If you substitute $f$ first then take the determinant, then the answer you get will be a scalar, but if you first take the determinant to get a polynomial in $x$, then substitute $f$, the answer is a matrix. So there is no reason to expect them to be the same.
$endgroup$
– Ted
Jan 5 at 17:42














$begingroup$
@Ted Since I defined $Q(x)$ as $operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ and since $operatorname{tr}$ is linear and $operatorname{tr}(operatorname{Id})=n$, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 5 at 18:10






$begingroup$
@Ted Since I defined $Q(x)$ as $operatorname{tr}(f-xoperatorname{Id})$ and since $operatorname{tr}$ is linear and $operatorname{tr}(operatorname{Id})=n$, $Q(x)=operatorname{tr}(f)-nx$.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 5 at 18:10




















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