Why is it that for a hamonic $u$, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function...











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Let $u$ be a harmonic function on a connected open set. If $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function.




This question arises from an answer to this post



Please do modify this question's assumptions if I am not stating some things correctly.



We know that the converse is true, namely that for any harmonic $u$ on an open connected set that has a harnonic conjugate, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$. I am thinking maybe Morera's theorem has to do something with this..










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite













    Let $u$ be a harmonic function on a connected open set. If $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function.




    This question arises from an answer to this post



    Please do modify this question's assumptions if I am not stating some things correctly.



    We know that the converse is true, namely that for any harmonic $u$ on an open connected set that has a harnonic conjugate, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$. I am thinking maybe Morera's theorem has to do something with this..










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite












      Let $u$ be a harmonic function on a connected open set. If $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function.




      This question arises from an answer to this post



      Please do modify this question's assumptions if I am not stating some things correctly.



      We know that the converse is true, namely that for any harmonic $u$ on an open connected set that has a harnonic conjugate, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$. I am thinking maybe Morera's theorem has to do something with this..










      share|cite|improve this question














      Let $u$ be a harmonic function on a connected open set. If $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function.




      This question arises from an answer to this post



      Please do modify this question's assumptions if I am not stating some things correctly.



      We know that the converse is true, namely that for any harmonic $u$ on an open connected set that has a harnonic conjugate, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$. I am thinking maybe Morera's theorem has to do something with this..







      complex-analysis harmonic-functions analytic-functions






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      asked Nov 23 at 1:39









      Cute Brownie

      978316




      978316






















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          I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
          You are given that
          $$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
          for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
          $$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.






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            1 Answer
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            active

            oldest

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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
            You are given that
            $$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
            for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
            $$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              2
              down vote



              accepted










              I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
              You are given that
              $$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
              for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
              $$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted







                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted






                I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
                You are given that
                $$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
                for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
                $$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
                You are given that
                $$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
                for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
                $$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.







                share|cite|improve this answer












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                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 23 at 2:52









                user1337

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