Why is it that for a hamonic $u$, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function...
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Let $u$ be a harmonic function on a connected open set. If $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function.
This question arises from an answer to this post
Please do modify this question's assumptions if I am not stating some things correctly.
We know that the converse is true, namely that for any harmonic $u$ on an open connected set that has a harnonic conjugate, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$. I am thinking maybe Morera's theorem has to do something with this..
complex-analysis harmonic-functions analytic-functions
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up vote
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Let $u$ be a harmonic function on a connected open set. If $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function.
This question arises from an answer to this post
Please do modify this question's assumptions if I am not stating some things correctly.
We know that the converse is true, namely that for any harmonic $u$ on an open connected set that has a harnonic conjugate, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$. I am thinking maybe Morera's theorem has to do something with this..
complex-analysis harmonic-functions analytic-functions
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let $u$ be a harmonic function on a connected open set. If $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function.
This question arises from an answer to this post
Please do modify this question's assumptions if I am not stating some things correctly.
We know that the converse is true, namely that for any harmonic $u$ on an open connected set that has a harnonic conjugate, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$. I am thinking maybe Morera's theorem has to do something with this..
complex-analysis harmonic-functions analytic-functions
Let $u$ be a harmonic function on a connected open set. If $int_{gamma}*du = 0$ for any cycle $gamma$ then $u$ has a harmonic function.
This question arises from an answer to this post
Please do modify this question's assumptions if I am not stating some things correctly.
We know that the converse is true, namely that for any harmonic $u$ on an open connected set that has a harnonic conjugate, $int_{gamma}*du = 0$. I am thinking maybe Morera's theorem has to do something with this..
complex-analysis harmonic-functions analytic-functions
complex-analysis harmonic-functions analytic-functions
asked Nov 23 at 1:39
Cute Brownie
978316
978316
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I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
You are given that
$$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
$$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
You are given that
$$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
$$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
You are given that
$$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
$$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
You are given that
$$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
$$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.
I suggest looking at this from a real calculus of two variables perspective.
You are given that
$$int_gamma -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y equiv 0, $$
for all cycles $gamma$ in the domain. This allows you to safely define a function
$$v(x,y) := int_{(x_0,y_0)}^{(x,y)} -frac{partial u}{partial y} mathrm{d} x+frac{partial u}{partial x} mathrm{d} y . $$ with $(x_0,y_0)$ a fixed point in the domain. The expression for $v(x,y)$ is well defined, since the difference between any two integration paths is a cycle.
answered Nov 23 at 2:52
user1337
16.9k43290
16.9k43290
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