In Newton-Raphson method $ g'(x^*) = 0 $ and $ g''(x^*)neq 0 $ for real roots not repeated











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Show that in the Newton-Raphson method $ g'(x^*) = 0 $ and $ g''(x^*)neq 0 $ for real roots not repeated, where $x^*$ is a fixed point.



Deriving the function $ g(x)=x-dfrac{f(x)}{f'(x)} $, and then evaluating in $ x^* $, I have proved that $g'(x^*) = 0$. I have also found that $ g''(x^*)=dfrac{f''(x^*)}{f'(x^*)} $.



Since the real roots are non-repetitive, $ f'(x^*) neq 0 $. Thus, for $ g''(x^*) neq 0 $, $ f''(x^*)$ must be different from zero. It's really $ f''(x^*) neq 0 $. If so, could you explain why?










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Show that in the Newton-Raphson method $ g'(x^*) = 0 $ and $ g''(x^*)neq 0 $ for real roots not repeated, where $x^*$ is a fixed point.



    Deriving the function $ g(x)=x-dfrac{f(x)}{f'(x)} $, and then evaluating in $ x^* $, I have proved that $g'(x^*) = 0$. I have also found that $ g''(x^*)=dfrac{f''(x^*)}{f'(x^*)} $.



    Since the real roots are non-repetitive, $ f'(x^*) neq 0 $. Thus, for $ g''(x^*) neq 0 $, $ f''(x^*)$ must be different from zero. It's really $ f''(x^*) neq 0 $. If so, could you explain why?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Show that in the Newton-Raphson method $ g'(x^*) = 0 $ and $ g''(x^*)neq 0 $ for real roots not repeated, where $x^*$ is a fixed point.



      Deriving the function $ g(x)=x-dfrac{f(x)}{f'(x)} $, and then evaluating in $ x^* $, I have proved that $g'(x^*) = 0$. I have also found that $ g''(x^*)=dfrac{f''(x^*)}{f'(x^*)} $.



      Since the real roots are non-repetitive, $ f'(x^*) neq 0 $. Thus, for $ g''(x^*) neq 0 $, $ f''(x^*)$ must be different from zero. It's really $ f''(x^*) neq 0 $. If so, could you explain why?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Show that in the Newton-Raphson method $ g'(x^*) = 0 $ and $ g''(x^*)neq 0 $ for real roots not repeated, where $x^*$ is a fixed point.



      Deriving the function $ g(x)=x-dfrac{f(x)}{f'(x)} $, and then evaluating in $ x^* $, I have proved that $g'(x^*) = 0$. I have also found that $ g''(x^*)=dfrac{f''(x^*)}{f'(x^*)} $.



      Since the real roots are non-repetitive, $ f'(x^*) neq 0 $. Thus, for $ g''(x^*) neq 0 $, $ f''(x^*)$ must be different from zero. It's really $ f''(x^*) neq 0 $. If so, could you explain why?







      numerical-methods






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      edited Nov 27 at 9:37









      LutzL

      55.1k42053




      55.1k42053










      asked Nov 27 at 6:46









      Jacob S.

      19010




      19010






















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          Your observation is correct. You can try it out directly with something like $f(x)=x+x^3$ where $$g(x)=frac{x+3x^3-(x+x^3)}{1+3x^2}=frac{2x^3}{1+3x^2},$$ which has a triple root at $x^*=0$, thus $g''(x^*)=0$.





          The removal of the curvature term, that is, the second derivative, is one of the motivations for the third order Halley method, you apply the Newton method to the function $F(x)=dfrac{f(x)}{sqrt{|f'(x)|}}$. Third order convergence means exactly your contradiction case, that not only is $g'(x^*)=0$, but also $g''(x^*)$ for $g$ the Newton step for $F$ at a simple root of $f$. This means that you can construct a counter-example $F$ to the claim in question from almost any function $f$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Why is $ f''(x^{*}) $ different from zero?
            – Jacob S.
            Nov 27 at 14:33










          • For a general function it will be. However nothing prevents it from occasionally also being zero. The claim that for simple roots you always have $f''(x^*)ne0$ is wrong. As you observed.
            – LutzL
            Nov 27 at 14:39











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Your observation is correct. You can try it out directly with something like $f(x)=x+x^3$ where $$g(x)=frac{x+3x^3-(x+x^3)}{1+3x^2}=frac{2x^3}{1+3x^2},$$ which has a triple root at $x^*=0$, thus $g''(x^*)=0$.





          The removal of the curvature term, that is, the second derivative, is one of the motivations for the third order Halley method, you apply the Newton method to the function $F(x)=dfrac{f(x)}{sqrt{|f'(x)|}}$. Third order convergence means exactly your contradiction case, that not only is $g'(x^*)=0$, but also $g''(x^*)$ for $g$ the Newton step for $F$ at a simple root of $f$. This means that you can construct a counter-example $F$ to the claim in question from almost any function $f$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Why is $ f''(x^{*}) $ different from zero?
            – Jacob S.
            Nov 27 at 14:33










          • For a general function it will be. However nothing prevents it from occasionally also being zero. The claim that for simple roots you always have $f''(x^*)ne0$ is wrong. As you observed.
            – LutzL
            Nov 27 at 14:39















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Your observation is correct. You can try it out directly with something like $f(x)=x+x^3$ where $$g(x)=frac{x+3x^3-(x+x^3)}{1+3x^2}=frac{2x^3}{1+3x^2},$$ which has a triple root at $x^*=0$, thus $g''(x^*)=0$.





          The removal of the curvature term, that is, the second derivative, is one of the motivations for the third order Halley method, you apply the Newton method to the function $F(x)=dfrac{f(x)}{sqrt{|f'(x)|}}$. Third order convergence means exactly your contradiction case, that not only is $g'(x^*)=0$, but also $g''(x^*)$ for $g$ the Newton step for $F$ at a simple root of $f$. This means that you can construct a counter-example $F$ to the claim in question from almost any function $f$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Why is $ f''(x^{*}) $ different from zero?
            – Jacob S.
            Nov 27 at 14:33










          • For a general function it will be. However nothing prevents it from occasionally also being zero. The claim that for simple roots you always have $f''(x^*)ne0$ is wrong. As you observed.
            – LutzL
            Nov 27 at 14:39













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Your observation is correct. You can try it out directly with something like $f(x)=x+x^3$ where $$g(x)=frac{x+3x^3-(x+x^3)}{1+3x^2}=frac{2x^3}{1+3x^2},$$ which has a triple root at $x^*=0$, thus $g''(x^*)=0$.





          The removal of the curvature term, that is, the second derivative, is one of the motivations for the third order Halley method, you apply the Newton method to the function $F(x)=dfrac{f(x)}{sqrt{|f'(x)|}}$. Third order convergence means exactly your contradiction case, that not only is $g'(x^*)=0$, but also $g''(x^*)$ for $g$ the Newton step for $F$ at a simple root of $f$. This means that you can construct a counter-example $F$ to the claim in question from almost any function $f$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Your observation is correct. You can try it out directly with something like $f(x)=x+x^3$ where $$g(x)=frac{x+3x^3-(x+x^3)}{1+3x^2}=frac{2x^3}{1+3x^2},$$ which has a triple root at $x^*=0$, thus $g''(x^*)=0$.





          The removal of the curvature term, that is, the second derivative, is one of the motivations for the third order Halley method, you apply the Newton method to the function $F(x)=dfrac{f(x)}{sqrt{|f'(x)|}}$. Third order convergence means exactly your contradiction case, that not only is $g'(x^*)=0$, but also $g''(x^*)$ for $g$ the Newton step for $F$ at a simple root of $f$. This means that you can construct a counter-example $F$ to the claim in question from almost any function $f$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 27 at 9:39

























          answered Nov 27 at 9:15









          LutzL

          55.1k42053




          55.1k42053












          • Why is $ f''(x^{*}) $ different from zero?
            – Jacob S.
            Nov 27 at 14:33










          • For a general function it will be. However nothing prevents it from occasionally also being zero. The claim that for simple roots you always have $f''(x^*)ne0$ is wrong. As you observed.
            – LutzL
            Nov 27 at 14:39


















          • Why is $ f''(x^{*}) $ different from zero?
            – Jacob S.
            Nov 27 at 14:33










          • For a general function it will be. However nothing prevents it from occasionally also being zero. The claim that for simple roots you always have $f''(x^*)ne0$ is wrong. As you observed.
            – LutzL
            Nov 27 at 14:39
















          Why is $ f''(x^{*}) $ different from zero?
          – Jacob S.
          Nov 27 at 14:33




          Why is $ f''(x^{*}) $ different from zero?
          – Jacob S.
          Nov 27 at 14:33












          For a general function it will be. However nothing prevents it from occasionally also being zero. The claim that for simple roots you always have $f''(x^*)ne0$ is wrong. As you observed.
          – LutzL
          Nov 27 at 14:39




          For a general function it will be. However nothing prevents it from occasionally also being zero. The claim that for simple roots you always have $f''(x^*)ne0$ is wrong. As you observed.
          – LutzL
          Nov 27 at 14:39


















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