If $xy$ divides $x^2 + y^2$ show that $x=pm y$ [duplicate]












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  • Show that a number is not an integer

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Problem statement : Let $x,y$ be integers, show that if $xy$ divides $x^2 + y^2$ then $x=pm y.$



What I have tried:



I can reduce this to the case where $gcd(x,y)=1$, since if $x$ and $y$ have a common factor, $d$ say, then $d^2$ divides through both $xy$ and $x^2 + y^2$



This then allows me to introduce another equation $1=ax+by$ for some $a, b.$



But I then get stuck ...










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marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque elementary-number-theory
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Dec 21 '18 at 4:04


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.























    5












    $begingroup$



    This question already has an answer here:




    • Show that a number is not an integer

      2 answers




    Problem statement : Let $x,y$ be integers, show that if $xy$ divides $x^2 + y^2$ then $x=pm y.$



    What I have tried:



    I can reduce this to the case where $gcd(x,y)=1$, since if $x$ and $y$ have a common factor, $d$ say, then $d^2$ divides through both $xy$ and $x^2 + y^2$



    This then allows me to introduce another equation $1=ax+by$ for some $a, b.$



    But I then get stuck ...










    share|cite|improve this question











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    marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque elementary-number-theory
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    Dec 21 '18 at 4:04


    This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.





















      5












      5








      5


      1



      $begingroup$



      This question already has an answer here:




      • Show that a number is not an integer

        2 answers




      Problem statement : Let $x,y$ be integers, show that if $xy$ divides $x^2 + y^2$ then $x=pm y.$



      What I have tried:



      I can reduce this to the case where $gcd(x,y)=1$, since if $x$ and $y$ have a common factor, $d$ say, then $d^2$ divides through both $xy$ and $x^2 + y^2$



      This then allows me to introduce another equation $1=ax+by$ for some $a, b.$



      But I then get stuck ...










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Show that a number is not an integer

        2 answers




      Problem statement : Let $x,y$ be integers, show that if $xy$ divides $x^2 + y^2$ then $x=pm y.$



      What I have tried:



      I can reduce this to the case where $gcd(x,y)=1$, since if $x$ and $y$ have a common factor, $d$ say, then $d^2$ divides through both $xy$ and $x^2 + y^2$



      This then allows me to introduce another equation $1=ax+by$ for some $a, b.$



      But I then get stuck ...





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Show that a number is not an integer

        2 answers








      elementary-number-theory divisibility sums-of-squares






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













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      edited Dec 19 '18 at 5:09









      Martin Sleziak

      44.7k10119272




      44.7k10119272










      asked Dec 19 '18 at 4:29









      user3203476user3203476

      746613




      746613




      marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque elementary-number-theory
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      Dec 21 '18 at 4:04


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









      marked as duplicate by Bill Dubuque elementary-number-theory
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          5 Answers
          5






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Suppose that $gcd(x,y)=1$ and $(xy)mid(x^2+y^2)$.
          Then $y^2equiv0pmod x$. If $1=ax+by$ then $byequiv1pmod x$ and so
          $1equiv(by)^2=b^2y^2equiv0pmod x$. So $x=pm1$. Likewise, $y=pm1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            3












            $begingroup$

            It makes little sense if either of $x,y$ is zero.



            I will continue with $x,y neq 0.$



            If $x^2 + y^2 = kxy$ for nonzero integer $k,$ we have
            $$ x^2 - k xy + y^2 = 0 $$
            We are taking $y neq 0,$ so we may divide through by $y^2,$ define $r = frac{x}{y},$ giving
            $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 $$
            with integer $k$ and rational $r.$



            So: what are the roots $r$ of
            $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 ; ? ; $$
            Can the roots actually be rational? For what values of $k$ can the roots be rational?






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thank you. My text (The Mathematical Ollympiad handbook - A. Gardiner) recommends avoiding introducing rationals if possible, which is why i will accept the alternative answer.
              $endgroup$
              – user3203476
              Dec 19 '18 at 4:44










            • $begingroup$
              You ought to have included that in the main body of the question, @user3203476.
              $endgroup$
              – Shaun
              Dec 19 '18 at 5:09










            • $begingroup$
              @user3203476 That's not a wise recommendation in this case. The Rational Root Test is a fundamental result in number theory and algebra and its use should be encouraged, not discouraged.
              $endgroup$
              – Bill Dubuque
              Dec 21 '18 at 3:42



















            3












            $begingroup$

            Suppose $xy|x^2+y^2$. Then $xy|x^2+y^2+2xy=(x+y)^2$. But if $gcd(x,y)=1$, then also
            $$
            1=gcd(x,x+y)=gcd(y,x+y)=gcd(xy,x+y)=gcd(xy,(x+y)^2)
            $$

            from which it then follows that $xy=pm 1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$





















              2












              $begingroup$

              Rational Algebraic Integer Approach



              Suppose that
              $$
              frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}=frac xy+frac yxinmathbb{Z}tag1
              $$

              Note that if $q=frac xyinmathbb{Q}$ and $q+frac1q=ninmathbb{Z}$, then
              $$
              left(q-frac1qright)^2=n^2-4inmathbb{Z}tag2
              $$

              This means that $z=q-frac1q$ is a rational solution to $z^2-(n^2-4)=0$; that is, $z$ is a rational algebraic integer. Thus, $zinmathbb{Z}$ (see this answer). Therefore, $(n+z)(n-z)=4$ is an integer factorization of $4$ where both factors have the same parity. That is, $n+z=n-z=pm2$, which means $n=pm2$ and $q-frac1q=z=0$. Thus, $frac{x^2}{y^2}=q^2=1$, and therefore, $x=pm y$.





              Bezout Approach



              Let $d=(x,y)$ and $u=x/d$ and $v=y/d$. Then, there exist $a,b$ so that $au+bv=1$. Suppose that
              $$
              begin{align}
              n
              &=frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}\
              &=frac{u^2+v^2}{uv}\
              &=frac{b^2u^2+(1-au)^2}{bu(1-au)}\
              &=frac{left(a^2+b^2right)u^2-2au+1}{bu-abu^2}tag3
              end{align}
              $$

              Then
              $$
              frac1u=n(b-abu)+2a-left(a^2+b^2right)uinmathbb{Z}tag4
              $$

              Thus, $ucdotfrac1u=1$ is an integral factorization of $1$. That is, $u=pm1$. Similarly, $v=pm1$.



              Therefore, $x=pm d$ and $y=pm d$, which means that $x=pm y$.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$





















                1












                $begingroup$

                If $(x,y)=d,$ and $dfrac xX=dfrac yY=d$ so that $(X,Y)=1$



                So, we need $XY$ to divide $X^2+Y^2$



                $implies X|(X^2+Y^2)iff X|Y^2$ with $(X,Y)=1$ which is possible only if $X=pm1$



                Similarly $Y=pm1$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$




















                  5 Answers
                  5






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes








                  5 Answers
                  5






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes









                  active

                  oldest

                  votes






                  active

                  oldest

                  votes









                  3












                  $begingroup$

                  Suppose that $gcd(x,y)=1$ and $(xy)mid(x^2+y^2)$.
                  Then $y^2equiv0pmod x$. If $1=ax+by$ then $byequiv1pmod x$ and so
                  $1equiv(by)^2=b^2y^2equiv0pmod x$. So $x=pm1$. Likewise, $y=pm1$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$


















                    3












                    $begingroup$

                    Suppose that $gcd(x,y)=1$ and $(xy)mid(x^2+y^2)$.
                    Then $y^2equiv0pmod x$. If $1=ax+by$ then $byequiv1pmod x$ and so
                    $1equiv(by)^2=b^2y^2equiv0pmod x$. So $x=pm1$. Likewise, $y=pm1$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$
















                      3












                      3








                      3





                      $begingroup$

                      Suppose that $gcd(x,y)=1$ and $(xy)mid(x^2+y^2)$.
                      Then $y^2equiv0pmod x$. If $1=ax+by$ then $byequiv1pmod x$ and so
                      $1equiv(by)^2=b^2y^2equiv0pmod x$. So $x=pm1$. Likewise, $y=pm1$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      Suppose that $gcd(x,y)=1$ and $(xy)mid(x^2+y^2)$.
                      Then $y^2equiv0pmod x$. If $1=ax+by$ then $byequiv1pmod x$ and so
                      $1equiv(by)^2=b^2y^2equiv0pmod x$. So $x=pm1$. Likewise, $y=pm1$.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Dec 19 '18 at 4:34









                      Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

                      105k1160132




                      105k1160132























                          3












                          $begingroup$

                          It makes little sense if either of $x,y$ is zero.



                          I will continue with $x,y neq 0.$



                          If $x^2 + y^2 = kxy$ for nonzero integer $k,$ we have
                          $$ x^2 - k xy + y^2 = 0 $$
                          We are taking $y neq 0,$ so we may divide through by $y^2,$ define $r = frac{x}{y},$ giving
                          $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 $$
                          with integer $k$ and rational $r.$



                          So: what are the roots $r$ of
                          $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 ; ? ; $$
                          Can the roots actually be rational? For what values of $k$ can the roots be rational?






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$













                          • $begingroup$
                            Thank you. My text (The Mathematical Ollympiad handbook - A. Gardiner) recommends avoiding introducing rationals if possible, which is why i will accept the alternative answer.
                            $endgroup$
                            – user3203476
                            Dec 19 '18 at 4:44










                          • $begingroup$
                            You ought to have included that in the main body of the question, @user3203476.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Shaun
                            Dec 19 '18 at 5:09










                          • $begingroup$
                            @user3203476 That's not a wise recommendation in this case. The Rational Root Test is a fundamental result in number theory and algebra and its use should be encouraged, not discouraged.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Bill Dubuque
                            Dec 21 '18 at 3:42
















                          3












                          $begingroup$

                          It makes little sense if either of $x,y$ is zero.



                          I will continue with $x,y neq 0.$



                          If $x^2 + y^2 = kxy$ for nonzero integer $k,$ we have
                          $$ x^2 - k xy + y^2 = 0 $$
                          We are taking $y neq 0,$ so we may divide through by $y^2,$ define $r = frac{x}{y},$ giving
                          $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 $$
                          with integer $k$ and rational $r.$



                          So: what are the roots $r$ of
                          $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 ; ? ; $$
                          Can the roots actually be rational? For what values of $k$ can the roots be rational?






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$













                          • $begingroup$
                            Thank you. My text (The Mathematical Ollympiad handbook - A. Gardiner) recommends avoiding introducing rationals if possible, which is why i will accept the alternative answer.
                            $endgroup$
                            – user3203476
                            Dec 19 '18 at 4:44










                          • $begingroup$
                            You ought to have included that in the main body of the question, @user3203476.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Shaun
                            Dec 19 '18 at 5:09










                          • $begingroup$
                            @user3203476 That's not a wise recommendation in this case. The Rational Root Test is a fundamental result in number theory and algebra and its use should be encouraged, not discouraged.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Bill Dubuque
                            Dec 21 '18 at 3:42














                          3












                          3








                          3





                          $begingroup$

                          It makes little sense if either of $x,y$ is zero.



                          I will continue with $x,y neq 0.$



                          If $x^2 + y^2 = kxy$ for nonzero integer $k,$ we have
                          $$ x^2 - k xy + y^2 = 0 $$
                          We are taking $y neq 0,$ so we may divide through by $y^2,$ define $r = frac{x}{y},$ giving
                          $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 $$
                          with integer $k$ and rational $r.$



                          So: what are the roots $r$ of
                          $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 ; ? ; $$
                          Can the roots actually be rational? For what values of $k$ can the roots be rational?






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          It makes little sense if either of $x,y$ is zero.



                          I will continue with $x,y neq 0.$



                          If $x^2 + y^2 = kxy$ for nonzero integer $k,$ we have
                          $$ x^2 - k xy + y^2 = 0 $$
                          We are taking $y neq 0,$ so we may divide through by $y^2,$ define $r = frac{x}{y},$ giving
                          $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 $$
                          with integer $k$ and rational $r.$



                          So: what are the roots $r$ of
                          $$ r^2 - kr + 1 = 0 ; ? ; $$
                          Can the roots actually be rational? For what values of $k$ can the roots be rational?







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 19 '18 at 4:38









                          Will JagyWill Jagy

                          103k5102200




                          103k5102200












                          • $begingroup$
                            Thank you. My text (The Mathematical Ollympiad handbook - A. Gardiner) recommends avoiding introducing rationals if possible, which is why i will accept the alternative answer.
                            $endgroup$
                            – user3203476
                            Dec 19 '18 at 4:44










                          • $begingroup$
                            You ought to have included that in the main body of the question, @user3203476.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Shaun
                            Dec 19 '18 at 5:09










                          • $begingroup$
                            @user3203476 That's not a wise recommendation in this case. The Rational Root Test is a fundamental result in number theory and algebra and its use should be encouraged, not discouraged.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Bill Dubuque
                            Dec 21 '18 at 3:42


















                          • $begingroup$
                            Thank you. My text (The Mathematical Ollympiad handbook - A. Gardiner) recommends avoiding introducing rationals if possible, which is why i will accept the alternative answer.
                            $endgroup$
                            – user3203476
                            Dec 19 '18 at 4:44










                          • $begingroup$
                            You ought to have included that in the main body of the question, @user3203476.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Shaun
                            Dec 19 '18 at 5:09










                          • $begingroup$
                            @user3203476 That's not a wise recommendation in this case. The Rational Root Test is a fundamental result in number theory and algebra and its use should be encouraged, not discouraged.
                            $endgroup$
                            – Bill Dubuque
                            Dec 21 '18 at 3:42
















                          $begingroup$
                          Thank you. My text (The Mathematical Ollympiad handbook - A. Gardiner) recommends avoiding introducing rationals if possible, which is why i will accept the alternative answer.
                          $endgroup$
                          – user3203476
                          Dec 19 '18 at 4:44




                          $begingroup$
                          Thank you. My text (The Mathematical Ollympiad handbook - A. Gardiner) recommends avoiding introducing rationals if possible, which is why i will accept the alternative answer.
                          $endgroup$
                          – user3203476
                          Dec 19 '18 at 4:44












                          $begingroup$
                          You ought to have included that in the main body of the question, @user3203476.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Shaun
                          Dec 19 '18 at 5:09




                          $begingroup$
                          You ought to have included that in the main body of the question, @user3203476.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Shaun
                          Dec 19 '18 at 5:09












                          $begingroup$
                          @user3203476 That's not a wise recommendation in this case. The Rational Root Test is a fundamental result in number theory and algebra and its use should be encouraged, not discouraged.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Bill Dubuque
                          Dec 21 '18 at 3:42




                          $begingroup$
                          @user3203476 That's not a wise recommendation in this case. The Rational Root Test is a fundamental result in number theory and algebra and its use should be encouraged, not discouraged.
                          $endgroup$
                          – Bill Dubuque
                          Dec 21 '18 at 3:42











                          3












                          $begingroup$

                          Suppose $xy|x^2+y^2$. Then $xy|x^2+y^2+2xy=(x+y)^2$. But if $gcd(x,y)=1$, then also
                          $$
                          1=gcd(x,x+y)=gcd(y,x+y)=gcd(xy,x+y)=gcd(xy,(x+y)^2)
                          $$

                          from which it then follows that $xy=pm 1$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$


















                            3












                            $begingroup$

                            Suppose $xy|x^2+y^2$. Then $xy|x^2+y^2+2xy=(x+y)^2$. But if $gcd(x,y)=1$, then also
                            $$
                            1=gcd(x,x+y)=gcd(y,x+y)=gcd(xy,x+y)=gcd(xy,(x+y)^2)
                            $$

                            from which it then follows that $xy=pm 1$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$
















                              3












                              3








                              3





                              $begingroup$

                              Suppose $xy|x^2+y^2$. Then $xy|x^2+y^2+2xy=(x+y)^2$. But if $gcd(x,y)=1$, then also
                              $$
                              1=gcd(x,x+y)=gcd(y,x+y)=gcd(xy,x+y)=gcd(xy,(x+y)^2)
                              $$

                              from which it then follows that $xy=pm 1$.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$



                              Suppose $xy|x^2+y^2$. Then $xy|x^2+y^2+2xy=(x+y)^2$. But if $gcd(x,y)=1$, then also
                              $$
                              1=gcd(x,x+y)=gcd(y,x+y)=gcd(xy,x+y)=gcd(xy,(x+y)^2)
                              $$

                              from which it then follows that $xy=pm 1$.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Dec 19 '18 at 4:45









                              MicahMicah

                              30.2k1364106




                              30.2k1364106























                                  2












                                  $begingroup$

                                  Rational Algebraic Integer Approach



                                  Suppose that
                                  $$
                                  frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}=frac xy+frac yxinmathbb{Z}tag1
                                  $$

                                  Note that if $q=frac xyinmathbb{Q}$ and $q+frac1q=ninmathbb{Z}$, then
                                  $$
                                  left(q-frac1qright)^2=n^2-4inmathbb{Z}tag2
                                  $$

                                  This means that $z=q-frac1q$ is a rational solution to $z^2-(n^2-4)=0$; that is, $z$ is a rational algebraic integer. Thus, $zinmathbb{Z}$ (see this answer). Therefore, $(n+z)(n-z)=4$ is an integer factorization of $4$ where both factors have the same parity. That is, $n+z=n-z=pm2$, which means $n=pm2$ and $q-frac1q=z=0$. Thus, $frac{x^2}{y^2}=q^2=1$, and therefore, $x=pm y$.





                                  Bezout Approach



                                  Let $d=(x,y)$ and $u=x/d$ and $v=y/d$. Then, there exist $a,b$ so that $au+bv=1$. Suppose that
                                  $$
                                  begin{align}
                                  n
                                  &=frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}\
                                  &=frac{u^2+v^2}{uv}\
                                  &=frac{b^2u^2+(1-au)^2}{bu(1-au)}\
                                  &=frac{left(a^2+b^2right)u^2-2au+1}{bu-abu^2}tag3
                                  end{align}
                                  $$

                                  Then
                                  $$
                                  frac1u=n(b-abu)+2a-left(a^2+b^2right)uinmathbb{Z}tag4
                                  $$

                                  Thus, $ucdotfrac1u=1$ is an integral factorization of $1$. That is, $u=pm1$. Similarly, $v=pm1$.



                                  Therefore, $x=pm d$ and $y=pm d$, which means that $x=pm y$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  $endgroup$


















                                    2












                                    $begingroup$

                                    Rational Algebraic Integer Approach



                                    Suppose that
                                    $$
                                    frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}=frac xy+frac yxinmathbb{Z}tag1
                                    $$

                                    Note that if $q=frac xyinmathbb{Q}$ and $q+frac1q=ninmathbb{Z}$, then
                                    $$
                                    left(q-frac1qright)^2=n^2-4inmathbb{Z}tag2
                                    $$

                                    This means that $z=q-frac1q$ is a rational solution to $z^2-(n^2-4)=0$; that is, $z$ is a rational algebraic integer. Thus, $zinmathbb{Z}$ (see this answer). Therefore, $(n+z)(n-z)=4$ is an integer factorization of $4$ where both factors have the same parity. That is, $n+z=n-z=pm2$, which means $n=pm2$ and $q-frac1q=z=0$. Thus, $frac{x^2}{y^2}=q^2=1$, and therefore, $x=pm y$.





                                    Bezout Approach



                                    Let $d=(x,y)$ and $u=x/d$ and $v=y/d$. Then, there exist $a,b$ so that $au+bv=1$. Suppose that
                                    $$
                                    begin{align}
                                    n
                                    &=frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}\
                                    &=frac{u^2+v^2}{uv}\
                                    &=frac{b^2u^2+(1-au)^2}{bu(1-au)}\
                                    &=frac{left(a^2+b^2right)u^2-2au+1}{bu-abu^2}tag3
                                    end{align}
                                    $$

                                    Then
                                    $$
                                    frac1u=n(b-abu)+2a-left(a^2+b^2right)uinmathbb{Z}tag4
                                    $$

                                    Thus, $ucdotfrac1u=1$ is an integral factorization of $1$. That is, $u=pm1$. Similarly, $v=pm1$.



                                    Therefore, $x=pm d$ and $y=pm d$, which means that $x=pm y$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer











                                    $endgroup$
















                                      2












                                      2








                                      2





                                      $begingroup$

                                      Rational Algebraic Integer Approach



                                      Suppose that
                                      $$
                                      frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}=frac xy+frac yxinmathbb{Z}tag1
                                      $$

                                      Note that if $q=frac xyinmathbb{Q}$ and $q+frac1q=ninmathbb{Z}$, then
                                      $$
                                      left(q-frac1qright)^2=n^2-4inmathbb{Z}tag2
                                      $$

                                      This means that $z=q-frac1q$ is a rational solution to $z^2-(n^2-4)=0$; that is, $z$ is a rational algebraic integer. Thus, $zinmathbb{Z}$ (see this answer). Therefore, $(n+z)(n-z)=4$ is an integer factorization of $4$ where both factors have the same parity. That is, $n+z=n-z=pm2$, which means $n=pm2$ and $q-frac1q=z=0$. Thus, $frac{x^2}{y^2}=q^2=1$, and therefore, $x=pm y$.





                                      Bezout Approach



                                      Let $d=(x,y)$ and $u=x/d$ and $v=y/d$. Then, there exist $a,b$ so that $au+bv=1$. Suppose that
                                      $$
                                      begin{align}
                                      n
                                      &=frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}\
                                      &=frac{u^2+v^2}{uv}\
                                      &=frac{b^2u^2+(1-au)^2}{bu(1-au)}\
                                      &=frac{left(a^2+b^2right)u^2-2au+1}{bu-abu^2}tag3
                                      end{align}
                                      $$

                                      Then
                                      $$
                                      frac1u=n(b-abu)+2a-left(a^2+b^2right)uinmathbb{Z}tag4
                                      $$

                                      Thus, $ucdotfrac1u=1$ is an integral factorization of $1$. That is, $u=pm1$. Similarly, $v=pm1$.



                                      Therefore, $x=pm d$ and $y=pm d$, which means that $x=pm y$.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer











                                      $endgroup$



                                      Rational Algebraic Integer Approach



                                      Suppose that
                                      $$
                                      frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}=frac xy+frac yxinmathbb{Z}tag1
                                      $$

                                      Note that if $q=frac xyinmathbb{Q}$ and $q+frac1q=ninmathbb{Z}$, then
                                      $$
                                      left(q-frac1qright)^2=n^2-4inmathbb{Z}tag2
                                      $$

                                      This means that $z=q-frac1q$ is a rational solution to $z^2-(n^2-4)=0$; that is, $z$ is a rational algebraic integer. Thus, $zinmathbb{Z}$ (see this answer). Therefore, $(n+z)(n-z)=4$ is an integer factorization of $4$ where both factors have the same parity. That is, $n+z=n-z=pm2$, which means $n=pm2$ and $q-frac1q=z=0$. Thus, $frac{x^2}{y^2}=q^2=1$, and therefore, $x=pm y$.





                                      Bezout Approach



                                      Let $d=(x,y)$ and $u=x/d$ and $v=y/d$. Then, there exist $a,b$ so that $au+bv=1$. Suppose that
                                      $$
                                      begin{align}
                                      n
                                      &=frac{x^2+y^2}{xy}\
                                      &=frac{u^2+v^2}{uv}\
                                      &=frac{b^2u^2+(1-au)^2}{bu(1-au)}\
                                      &=frac{left(a^2+b^2right)u^2-2au+1}{bu-abu^2}tag3
                                      end{align}
                                      $$

                                      Then
                                      $$
                                      frac1u=n(b-abu)+2a-left(a^2+b^2right)uinmathbb{Z}tag4
                                      $$

                                      Thus, $ucdotfrac1u=1$ is an integral factorization of $1$. That is, $u=pm1$. Similarly, $v=pm1$.



                                      Therefore, $x=pm d$ and $y=pm d$, which means that $x=pm y$.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer








                                      edited Dec 19 '18 at 15:23

























                                      answered Dec 19 '18 at 6:39









                                      robjohnrobjohn

                                      268k27308633




                                      268k27308633























                                          1












                                          $begingroup$

                                          If $(x,y)=d,$ and $dfrac xX=dfrac yY=d$ so that $(X,Y)=1$



                                          So, we need $XY$ to divide $X^2+Y^2$



                                          $implies X|(X^2+Y^2)iff X|Y^2$ with $(X,Y)=1$ which is possible only if $X=pm1$



                                          Similarly $Y=pm1$






                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                          $endgroup$


















                                            1












                                            $begingroup$

                                            If $(x,y)=d,$ and $dfrac xX=dfrac yY=d$ so that $(X,Y)=1$



                                            So, we need $XY$ to divide $X^2+Y^2$



                                            $implies X|(X^2+Y^2)iff X|Y^2$ with $(X,Y)=1$ which is possible only if $X=pm1$



                                            Similarly $Y=pm1$






                                            share|cite|improve this answer









                                            $endgroup$
















                                              1












                                              1








                                              1





                                              $begingroup$

                                              If $(x,y)=d,$ and $dfrac xX=dfrac yY=d$ so that $(X,Y)=1$



                                              So, we need $XY$ to divide $X^2+Y^2$



                                              $implies X|(X^2+Y^2)iff X|Y^2$ with $(X,Y)=1$ which is possible only if $X=pm1$



                                              Similarly $Y=pm1$






                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                              $endgroup$



                                              If $(x,y)=d,$ and $dfrac xX=dfrac yY=d$ so that $(X,Y)=1$



                                              So, we need $XY$ to divide $X^2+Y^2$



                                              $implies X|(X^2+Y^2)iff X|Y^2$ with $(X,Y)=1$ which is possible only if $X=pm1$



                                              Similarly $Y=pm1$







                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer










                                              answered Dec 19 '18 at 4:53









                                              lab bhattacharjeelab bhattacharjee

                                              226k15157275




                                              226k15157275















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