Volume of $T_n={x_ige0:x_1+cdots+x_nle1}$












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$begingroup$


Let $T_n={x_ige0:x_1+cdots+x_nle1}$. I know $T_n$ is tetrahedron.



My question: How can I compute the volume of $T_n$ for every $n$?










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$endgroup$

















    12












    $begingroup$


    Let $T_n={x_ige0:x_1+cdots+x_nle1}$. I know $T_n$ is tetrahedron.



    My question: How can I compute the volume of $T_n$ for every $n$?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      12












      12








      12


      12



      $begingroup$


      Let $T_n={x_ige0:x_1+cdots+x_nle1}$. I know $T_n$ is tetrahedron.



      My question: How can I compute the volume of $T_n$ for every $n$?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $T_n={x_ige0:x_1+cdots+x_nle1}$. I know $T_n$ is tetrahedron.



      My question: How can I compute the volume of $T_n$ for every $n$?







      calculus integration multivariable-calculus volume simplex






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Mar 17 '16 at 13:51









      Martin Sleziak

      44.7k10119272




      44.7k10119272










      asked Apr 26 '14 at 0:48







      user145801





























          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          11





          +50







          $begingroup$

          First suppose that we want to find the volume of $T_n(a)$, then by change of variables $X=aU$, you can see that we have $V(T_n(a))=color{red}{a^n}V(T_n(1))$.



          Since $x_1+cdots+x_nle1$ if and only if $x_nle1$ and $x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le 1-x_n$, we have
          $$begin{align}V(T_n(1))&=int_{x_nle 1}left(int_{x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le1-x_n}dx_1cdots dx_{n-1}right)dx_n\
          &=V(T_{n-1}(1))int_{x_nle1}color{red}{(1-x_n)^{n-1}}dx_n=frac1 nV(T_{n-1}(1))end{align}$$
          The numbers $V(T_n(1))$ satisfy in the above recursion formula, so
          $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$



          One another way is to consider the following integral



          $$I=int_{T_n(a)}e^{-(x_1+cdots+x_n)}dx_1cdots dx_n$$
          Since $V(T_n(a))=a^nV(T_n(1))$,
          $$I=int_0^infty e^{-a}dV(T_n(a))=V(T_n(1))int_0^infty n a^{n-1}e^{-a}da=n!V(T_n(1))$$
          But also we have
          $$I=left(int_0^infty e^{-x}dxright)^n=1$$
          Hence,
          $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I got the answer to the other question :). plus the other question is easy. This one is harder. I have one question: earlier today I was thinking this problem can be solved maybe by using a change of variables? What do you think about using $y_i = sum_{j=1}^i x_j $ ?
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:13












          • $begingroup$
            ِDid you calculate Jacobian of this change of variable?
            $endgroup$
            – user91500
            May 1 '14 at 9:23










          • $begingroup$
            I did it for the case $n=3$ which is $1$
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:24












          • $begingroup$
            and $n=2$ also .
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:30






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Jacobian for arbitrary $n$ is also $1$, but I suggest you to use following change of variable $$y_1=x_n,y_2=x_{n-1}+x_{n},cdots,y_n=x_1+cdots+x_n$$ Then it's Jacobian is also $1$ and we have $$V(T_n(1))=int_0^1int_{y_1}^1int_{y_2}^1cdotsint_{y_{n-1}}^11~dy_n~dy_{n-1}~dy_{n-2}cdots~dy_1.$$
            $endgroup$
            – user91500
            May 1 '14 at 10:43



















          27












          $begingroup$

          What is the probability that a random sequence of $n$ numbers in $[0,1]$ is sorted (lowest to highest)? that is, let $y_1,y_2,dots,y_n$ be independent uniform random variables in $[0,1]$. Then the probability $P(y_1leq y_2leq dots leq y_n)=frac{1}{n!}$.



          Let $A=(a_{ij})$ be the matrix such that $a_{ij}=1$ if $igeq j$ and $a_{ij}=0$ if $i<j$. Then $det A = 1$ since $A$ is lower-triangular and $a_{ii}=1$ for all $i$. On the other hand, if you take the two sets:



          $$S={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_ileq 1: sum x_i leq 1}$$



          and $$T={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_1leq x_2dots leq x_nleq 1}$$



          Then $T$ is the image of $S$ under the transformation $A$, that is, $AS=T$. So $$frac{1}{n!}=mathrm{vol}(T) = det Acdotmathrm{vol}(S) = mathrm{vol}(S)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer











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          • $begingroup$
            It's 1/n!, but I'm having trouble seeing how that relates to volume
            $endgroup$
            – MathPhys137
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01












          • $begingroup$
            it is actually the same one, but with different form, and I doubt if it is easier to see this.
            $endgroup$
            – Yimin
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










          • $begingroup$
            @MathPhys137, just think of Monte Carlo method
            $endgroup$
            – Yimin
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










          • $begingroup$
            Oh I see. Thanks Thomas!
            $endgroup$
            – MathPhys137
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:03






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Note, the set I describe and the simplex set are not isometric/congruent, you nead some skew transformation which preserves volume. Basically, you need to know that the transformation $(x_1,dots,x_n)to (x_1,x_1+x_2,cdots,sum_{i=1}^n x_n)$ is a volume-preserving map.
            $endgroup$
            – Thomas Andrews
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:14





















          6












          $begingroup$

          Hint: The general rule is that the $n$-volume of a simplex is $frac 1n$ times the $ (n-1)$ volume of the base times the height, which you can prove by integration. The height is $1$, so you have a recurrence.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            4












            $begingroup$

            Try using induction. $T_{1}$ is just in the interval $[0,1]$, which has volume (length) $1$. $T_{2}$ is a right triangle with volume (area) $1/2$. Now imagine the case for $n=3$. When we slice the tetrahedron $T_{3}$ at some height $zin[0,1]$, we get a cross section that looks like $T_{2}$. But as $z$ gets bigger, the cross section gets smaller. Try to convince yourself that in general we have
            $$
            v(T_{n})=int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^{n-1}v(T_{n-1}),mathrm{d}x=frac{1}{n}v(T_{n-1})
            $$
            Then, using the fact that $v(T_{1})=1$, we have $v(T_{n})=1/n!$. Note that we scale by $(1-x)^{n-1}$ instead of by $1-x$ because it is the linear dimensions of the $T_{n-1}$ slice that scale by $1-x$, which translates to the $mathbb{R}^{n-1}$ volume of the slice scaling by $(1-x)^{n-1}$.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              Thanks Ben! I have one question. Is there a way to solve this problem using triple integrals? and maybe a change of variables?
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              Apr 26 '14 at 1:03










            • $begingroup$
              Unfortunately I answered too hastily and this approach is wrong! I apologize. I believe Ross' answer is correct. For $T_{3}$ the integral would be $int_{0}^{1}int_{0}^{1-z}int_{0}^{1-(y+z)}1 , mathrm{d} x , mathrm{d} y , mathrm{d} z$.
              $endgroup$
              – Ben Whitney
              Apr 26 '14 at 1:14








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I have fixed my response, which is now a more fleshed out version of Ross'.
              $endgroup$
              – Ben Whitney
              Apr 26 '14 at 1:26











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            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

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            4 Answers
            4






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            11





            +50







            $begingroup$

            First suppose that we want to find the volume of $T_n(a)$, then by change of variables $X=aU$, you can see that we have $V(T_n(a))=color{red}{a^n}V(T_n(1))$.



            Since $x_1+cdots+x_nle1$ if and only if $x_nle1$ and $x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le 1-x_n$, we have
            $$begin{align}V(T_n(1))&=int_{x_nle 1}left(int_{x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le1-x_n}dx_1cdots dx_{n-1}right)dx_n\
            &=V(T_{n-1}(1))int_{x_nle1}color{red}{(1-x_n)^{n-1}}dx_n=frac1 nV(T_{n-1}(1))end{align}$$
            The numbers $V(T_n(1))$ satisfy in the above recursion formula, so
            $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$



            One another way is to consider the following integral



            $$I=int_{T_n(a)}e^{-(x_1+cdots+x_n)}dx_1cdots dx_n$$
            Since $V(T_n(a))=a^nV(T_n(1))$,
            $$I=int_0^infty e^{-a}dV(T_n(a))=V(T_n(1))int_0^infty n a^{n-1}e^{-a}da=n!V(T_n(1))$$
            But also we have
            $$I=left(int_0^infty e^{-x}dxright)^n=1$$
            Hence,
            $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I got the answer to the other question :). plus the other question is easy. This one is harder. I have one question: earlier today I was thinking this problem can be solved maybe by using a change of variables? What do you think about using $y_i = sum_{j=1}^i x_j $ ?
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:13












            • $begingroup$
              ِDid you calculate Jacobian of this change of variable?
              $endgroup$
              – user91500
              May 1 '14 at 9:23










            • $begingroup$
              I did it for the case $n=3$ which is $1$
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:24












            • $begingroup$
              and $n=2$ also .
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:30






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Jacobian for arbitrary $n$ is also $1$, but I suggest you to use following change of variable $$y_1=x_n,y_2=x_{n-1}+x_{n},cdots,y_n=x_1+cdots+x_n$$ Then it's Jacobian is also $1$ and we have $$V(T_n(1))=int_0^1int_{y_1}^1int_{y_2}^1cdotsint_{y_{n-1}}^11~dy_n~dy_{n-1}~dy_{n-2}cdots~dy_1.$$
              $endgroup$
              – user91500
              May 1 '14 at 10:43
















            11





            +50







            $begingroup$

            First suppose that we want to find the volume of $T_n(a)$, then by change of variables $X=aU$, you can see that we have $V(T_n(a))=color{red}{a^n}V(T_n(1))$.



            Since $x_1+cdots+x_nle1$ if and only if $x_nle1$ and $x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le 1-x_n$, we have
            $$begin{align}V(T_n(1))&=int_{x_nle 1}left(int_{x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le1-x_n}dx_1cdots dx_{n-1}right)dx_n\
            &=V(T_{n-1}(1))int_{x_nle1}color{red}{(1-x_n)^{n-1}}dx_n=frac1 nV(T_{n-1}(1))end{align}$$
            The numbers $V(T_n(1))$ satisfy in the above recursion formula, so
            $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$



            One another way is to consider the following integral



            $$I=int_{T_n(a)}e^{-(x_1+cdots+x_n)}dx_1cdots dx_n$$
            Since $V(T_n(a))=a^nV(T_n(1))$,
            $$I=int_0^infty e^{-a}dV(T_n(a))=V(T_n(1))int_0^infty n a^{n-1}e^{-a}da=n!V(T_n(1))$$
            But also we have
            $$I=left(int_0^infty e^{-x}dxright)^n=1$$
            Hence,
            $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I got the answer to the other question :). plus the other question is easy. This one is harder. I have one question: earlier today I was thinking this problem can be solved maybe by using a change of variables? What do you think about using $y_i = sum_{j=1}^i x_j $ ?
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:13












            • $begingroup$
              ِDid you calculate Jacobian of this change of variable?
              $endgroup$
              – user91500
              May 1 '14 at 9:23










            • $begingroup$
              I did it for the case $n=3$ which is $1$
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:24












            • $begingroup$
              and $n=2$ also .
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:30






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Jacobian for arbitrary $n$ is also $1$, but I suggest you to use following change of variable $$y_1=x_n,y_2=x_{n-1}+x_{n},cdots,y_n=x_1+cdots+x_n$$ Then it's Jacobian is also $1$ and we have $$V(T_n(1))=int_0^1int_{y_1}^1int_{y_2}^1cdotsint_{y_{n-1}}^11~dy_n~dy_{n-1}~dy_{n-2}cdots~dy_1.$$
              $endgroup$
              – user91500
              May 1 '14 at 10:43














            11





            +50







            11





            +50



            11




            +50



            $begingroup$

            First suppose that we want to find the volume of $T_n(a)$, then by change of variables $X=aU$, you can see that we have $V(T_n(a))=color{red}{a^n}V(T_n(1))$.



            Since $x_1+cdots+x_nle1$ if and only if $x_nle1$ and $x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le 1-x_n$, we have
            $$begin{align}V(T_n(1))&=int_{x_nle 1}left(int_{x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le1-x_n}dx_1cdots dx_{n-1}right)dx_n\
            &=V(T_{n-1}(1))int_{x_nle1}color{red}{(1-x_n)^{n-1}}dx_n=frac1 nV(T_{n-1}(1))end{align}$$
            The numbers $V(T_n(1))$ satisfy in the above recursion formula, so
            $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$



            One another way is to consider the following integral



            $$I=int_{T_n(a)}e^{-(x_1+cdots+x_n)}dx_1cdots dx_n$$
            Since $V(T_n(a))=a^nV(T_n(1))$,
            $$I=int_0^infty e^{-a}dV(T_n(a))=V(T_n(1))int_0^infty n a^{n-1}e^{-a}da=n!V(T_n(1))$$
            But also we have
            $$I=left(int_0^infty e^{-x}dxright)^n=1$$
            Hence,
            $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            First suppose that we want to find the volume of $T_n(a)$, then by change of variables $X=aU$, you can see that we have $V(T_n(a))=color{red}{a^n}V(T_n(1))$.



            Since $x_1+cdots+x_nle1$ if and only if $x_nle1$ and $x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le 1-x_n$, we have
            $$begin{align}V(T_n(1))&=int_{x_nle 1}left(int_{x_1+cdots+x_{n-1}le1-x_n}dx_1cdots dx_{n-1}right)dx_n\
            &=V(T_{n-1}(1))int_{x_nle1}color{red}{(1-x_n)^{n-1}}dx_n=frac1 nV(T_{n-1}(1))end{align}$$
            The numbers $V(T_n(1))$ satisfy in the above recursion formula, so
            $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$



            One another way is to consider the following integral



            $$I=int_{T_n(a)}e^{-(x_1+cdots+x_n)}dx_1cdots dx_n$$
            Since $V(T_n(a))=a^nV(T_n(1))$,
            $$I=int_0^infty e^{-a}dV(T_n(a))=V(T_n(1))int_0^infty n a^{n-1}e^{-a}da=n!V(T_n(1))$$
            But also we have
            $$I=left(int_0^infty e^{-x}dxright)^n=1$$
            Hence,
            $$V(T_n(1))=frac1{n!}.$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited May 1 '14 at 14:33

























            answered May 1 '14 at 8:26









            user91500user91500

            3,650946105




            3,650946105












            • $begingroup$
              I got the answer to the other question :). plus the other question is easy. This one is harder. I have one question: earlier today I was thinking this problem can be solved maybe by using a change of variables? What do you think about using $y_i = sum_{j=1}^i x_j $ ?
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:13












            • $begingroup$
              ِDid you calculate Jacobian of this change of variable?
              $endgroup$
              – user91500
              May 1 '14 at 9:23










            • $begingroup$
              I did it for the case $n=3$ which is $1$
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:24












            • $begingroup$
              and $n=2$ also .
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:30






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Jacobian for arbitrary $n$ is also $1$, but I suggest you to use following change of variable $$y_1=x_n,y_2=x_{n-1}+x_{n},cdots,y_n=x_1+cdots+x_n$$ Then it's Jacobian is also $1$ and we have $$V(T_n(1))=int_0^1int_{y_1}^1int_{y_2}^1cdotsint_{y_{n-1}}^11~dy_n~dy_{n-1}~dy_{n-2}cdots~dy_1.$$
              $endgroup$
              – user91500
              May 1 '14 at 10:43


















            • $begingroup$
              I got the answer to the other question :). plus the other question is easy. This one is harder. I have one question: earlier today I was thinking this problem can be solved maybe by using a change of variables? What do you think about using $y_i = sum_{j=1}^i x_j $ ?
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:13












            • $begingroup$
              ِDid you calculate Jacobian of this change of variable?
              $endgroup$
              – user91500
              May 1 '14 at 9:23










            • $begingroup$
              I did it for the case $n=3$ which is $1$
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:24












            • $begingroup$
              and $n=2$ also .
              $endgroup$
              – user145801
              May 1 '14 at 9:30






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Jacobian for arbitrary $n$ is also $1$, but I suggest you to use following change of variable $$y_1=x_n,y_2=x_{n-1}+x_{n},cdots,y_n=x_1+cdots+x_n$$ Then it's Jacobian is also $1$ and we have $$V(T_n(1))=int_0^1int_{y_1}^1int_{y_2}^1cdotsint_{y_{n-1}}^11~dy_n~dy_{n-1}~dy_{n-2}cdots~dy_1.$$
              $endgroup$
              – user91500
              May 1 '14 at 10:43
















            $begingroup$
            I got the answer to the other question :). plus the other question is easy. This one is harder. I have one question: earlier today I was thinking this problem can be solved maybe by using a change of variables? What do you think about using $y_i = sum_{j=1}^i x_j $ ?
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:13






            $begingroup$
            I got the answer to the other question :). plus the other question is easy. This one is harder. I have one question: earlier today I was thinking this problem can be solved maybe by using a change of variables? What do you think about using $y_i = sum_{j=1}^i x_j $ ?
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:13














            $begingroup$
            ِDid you calculate Jacobian of this change of variable?
            $endgroup$
            – user91500
            May 1 '14 at 9:23




            $begingroup$
            ِDid you calculate Jacobian of this change of variable?
            $endgroup$
            – user91500
            May 1 '14 at 9:23












            $begingroup$
            I did it for the case $n=3$ which is $1$
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:24






            $begingroup$
            I did it for the case $n=3$ which is $1$
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:24














            $begingroup$
            and $n=2$ also .
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:30




            $begingroup$
            and $n=2$ also .
            $endgroup$
            – user145801
            May 1 '14 at 9:30




            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            Jacobian for arbitrary $n$ is also $1$, but I suggest you to use following change of variable $$y_1=x_n,y_2=x_{n-1}+x_{n},cdots,y_n=x_1+cdots+x_n$$ Then it's Jacobian is also $1$ and we have $$V(T_n(1))=int_0^1int_{y_1}^1int_{y_2}^1cdotsint_{y_{n-1}}^11~dy_n~dy_{n-1}~dy_{n-2}cdots~dy_1.$$
            $endgroup$
            – user91500
            May 1 '14 at 10:43




            $begingroup$
            Jacobian for arbitrary $n$ is also $1$, but I suggest you to use following change of variable $$y_1=x_n,y_2=x_{n-1}+x_{n},cdots,y_n=x_1+cdots+x_n$$ Then it's Jacobian is also $1$ and we have $$V(T_n(1))=int_0^1int_{y_1}^1int_{y_2}^1cdotsint_{y_{n-1}}^11~dy_n~dy_{n-1}~dy_{n-2}cdots~dy_1.$$
            $endgroup$
            – user91500
            May 1 '14 at 10:43











            27












            $begingroup$

            What is the probability that a random sequence of $n$ numbers in $[0,1]$ is sorted (lowest to highest)? that is, let $y_1,y_2,dots,y_n$ be independent uniform random variables in $[0,1]$. Then the probability $P(y_1leq y_2leq dots leq y_n)=frac{1}{n!}$.



            Let $A=(a_{ij})$ be the matrix such that $a_{ij}=1$ if $igeq j$ and $a_{ij}=0$ if $i<j$. Then $det A = 1$ since $A$ is lower-triangular and $a_{ii}=1$ for all $i$. On the other hand, if you take the two sets:



            $$S={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_ileq 1: sum x_i leq 1}$$



            and $$T={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_1leq x_2dots leq x_nleq 1}$$



            Then $T$ is the image of $S$ under the transformation $A$, that is, $AS=T$. So $$frac{1}{n!}=mathrm{vol}(T) = det Acdotmathrm{vol}(S) = mathrm{vol}(S)$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              It's 1/n!, but I'm having trouble seeing how that relates to volume
              $endgroup$
              – MathPhys137
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01












            • $begingroup$
              it is actually the same one, but with different form, and I doubt if it is easier to see this.
              $endgroup$
              – Yimin
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










            • $begingroup$
              @MathPhys137, just think of Monte Carlo method
              $endgroup$
              – Yimin
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










            • $begingroup$
              Oh I see. Thanks Thomas!
              $endgroup$
              – MathPhys137
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:03






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Note, the set I describe and the simplex set are not isometric/congruent, you nead some skew transformation which preserves volume. Basically, you need to know that the transformation $(x_1,dots,x_n)to (x_1,x_1+x_2,cdots,sum_{i=1}^n x_n)$ is a volume-preserving map.
              $endgroup$
              – Thomas Andrews
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:14


















            27












            $begingroup$

            What is the probability that a random sequence of $n$ numbers in $[0,1]$ is sorted (lowest to highest)? that is, let $y_1,y_2,dots,y_n$ be independent uniform random variables in $[0,1]$. Then the probability $P(y_1leq y_2leq dots leq y_n)=frac{1}{n!}$.



            Let $A=(a_{ij})$ be the matrix such that $a_{ij}=1$ if $igeq j$ and $a_{ij}=0$ if $i<j$. Then $det A = 1$ since $A$ is lower-triangular and $a_{ii}=1$ for all $i$. On the other hand, if you take the two sets:



            $$S={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_ileq 1: sum x_i leq 1}$$



            and $$T={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_1leq x_2dots leq x_nleq 1}$$



            Then $T$ is the image of $S$ under the transformation $A$, that is, $AS=T$. So $$frac{1}{n!}=mathrm{vol}(T) = det Acdotmathrm{vol}(S) = mathrm{vol}(S)$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              It's 1/n!, but I'm having trouble seeing how that relates to volume
              $endgroup$
              – MathPhys137
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01












            • $begingroup$
              it is actually the same one, but with different form, and I doubt if it is easier to see this.
              $endgroup$
              – Yimin
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










            • $begingroup$
              @MathPhys137, just think of Monte Carlo method
              $endgroup$
              – Yimin
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










            • $begingroup$
              Oh I see. Thanks Thomas!
              $endgroup$
              – MathPhys137
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:03






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Note, the set I describe and the simplex set are not isometric/congruent, you nead some skew transformation which preserves volume. Basically, you need to know that the transformation $(x_1,dots,x_n)to (x_1,x_1+x_2,cdots,sum_{i=1}^n x_n)$ is a volume-preserving map.
              $endgroup$
              – Thomas Andrews
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:14
















            27












            27








            27





            $begingroup$

            What is the probability that a random sequence of $n$ numbers in $[0,1]$ is sorted (lowest to highest)? that is, let $y_1,y_2,dots,y_n$ be independent uniform random variables in $[0,1]$. Then the probability $P(y_1leq y_2leq dots leq y_n)=frac{1}{n!}$.



            Let $A=(a_{ij})$ be the matrix such that $a_{ij}=1$ if $igeq j$ and $a_{ij}=0$ if $i<j$. Then $det A = 1$ since $A$ is lower-triangular and $a_{ii}=1$ for all $i$. On the other hand, if you take the two sets:



            $$S={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_ileq 1: sum x_i leq 1}$$



            and $$T={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_1leq x_2dots leq x_nleq 1}$$



            Then $T$ is the image of $S$ under the transformation $A$, that is, $AS=T$. So $$frac{1}{n!}=mathrm{vol}(T) = det Acdotmathrm{vol}(S) = mathrm{vol}(S)$$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            What is the probability that a random sequence of $n$ numbers in $[0,1]$ is sorted (lowest to highest)? that is, let $y_1,y_2,dots,y_n$ be independent uniform random variables in $[0,1]$. Then the probability $P(y_1leq y_2leq dots leq y_n)=frac{1}{n!}$.



            Let $A=(a_{ij})$ be the matrix such that $a_{ij}=1$ if $igeq j$ and $a_{ij}=0$ if $i<j$. Then $det A = 1$ since $A$ is lower-triangular and $a_{ii}=1$ for all $i$. On the other hand, if you take the two sets:



            $$S={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_ileq 1: sum x_i leq 1}$$



            and $$T={(x_1,dots,x_n)^T: 0leq x_1leq x_2dots leq x_nleq 1}$$



            Then $T$ is the image of $S$ under the transformation $A$, that is, $AS=T$. So $$frac{1}{n!}=mathrm{vol}(T) = det Acdotmathrm{vol}(S) = mathrm{vol}(S)$$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 18 '18 at 17:24

























            answered Feb 26 '13 at 21:58









            Thomas AndrewsThomas Andrews

            130k12146298




            130k12146298












            • $begingroup$
              It's 1/n!, but I'm having trouble seeing how that relates to volume
              $endgroup$
              – MathPhys137
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01












            • $begingroup$
              it is actually the same one, but with different form, and I doubt if it is easier to see this.
              $endgroup$
              – Yimin
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










            • $begingroup$
              @MathPhys137, just think of Monte Carlo method
              $endgroup$
              – Yimin
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










            • $begingroup$
              Oh I see. Thanks Thomas!
              $endgroup$
              – MathPhys137
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:03






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Note, the set I describe and the simplex set are not isometric/congruent, you nead some skew transformation which preserves volume. Basically, you need to know that the transformation $(x_1,dots,x_n)to (x_1,x_1+x_2,cdots,sum_{i=1}^n x_n)$ is a volume-preserving map.
              $endgroup$
              – Thomas Andrews
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:14




















            • $begingroup$
              It's 1/n!, but I'm having trouble seeing how that relates to volume
              $endgroup$
              – MathPhys137
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01












            • $begingroup$
              it is actually the same one, but with different form, and I doubt if it is easier to see this.
              $endgroup$
              – Yimin
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










            • $begingroup$
              @MathPhys137, just think of Monte Carlo method
              $endgroup$
              – Yimin
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:01










            • $begingroup$
              Oh I see. Thanks Thomas!
              $endgroup$
              – MathPhys137
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:03






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Note, the set I describe and the simplex set are not isometric/congruent, you nead some skew transformation which preserves volume. Basically, you need to know that the transformation $(x_1,dots,x_n)to (x_1,x_1+x_2,cdots,sum_{i=1}^n x_n)$ is a volume-preserving map.
              $endgroup$
              – Thomas Andrews
              Feb 26 '13 at 22:14


















            $begingroup$
            It's 1/n!, but I'm having trouble seeing how that relates to volume
            $endgroup$
            – MathPhys137
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01






            $begingroup$
            It's 1/n!, but I'm having trouble seeing how that relates to volume
            $endgroup$
            – MathPhys137
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01














            $begingroup$
            it is actually the same one, but with different form, and I doubt if it is easier to see this.
            $endgroup$
            – Yimin
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01




            $begingroup$
            it is actually the same one, but with different form, and I doubt if it is easier to see this.
            $endgroup$
            – Yimin
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01












            $begingroup$
            @MathPhys137, just think of Monte Carlo method
            $endgroup$
            – Yimin
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01




            $begingroup$
            @MathPhys137, just think of Monte Carlo method
            $endgroup$
            – Yimin
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:01












            $begingroup$
            Oh I see. Thanks Thomas!
            $endgroup$
            – MathPhys137
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:03




            $begingroup$
            Oh I see. Thanks Thomas!
            $endgroup$
            – MathPhys137
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:03




            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            Note, the set I describe and the simplex set are not isometric/congruent, you nead some skew transformation which preserves volume. Basically, you need to know that the transformation $(x_1,dots,x_n)to (x_1,x_1+x_2,cdots,sum_{i=1}^n x_n)$ is a volume-preserving map.
            $endgroup$
            – Thomas Andrews
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:14






            $begingroup$
            Note, the set I describe and the simplex set are not isometric/congruent, you nead some skew transformation which preserves volume. Basically, you need to know that the transformation $(x_1,dots,x_n)to (x_1,x_1+x_2,cdots,sum_{i=1}^n x_n)$ is a volume-preserving map.
            $endgroup$
            – Thomas Andrews
            Feb 26 '13 at 22:14













            6












            $begingroup$

            Hint: The general rule is that the $n$-volume of a simplex is $frac 1n$ times the $ (n-1)$ volume of the base times the height, which you can prove by integration. The height is $1$, so you have a recurrence.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              6












              $begingroup$

              Hint: The general rule is that the $n$-volume of a simplex is $frac 1n$ times the $ (n-1)$ volume of the base times the height, which you can prove by integration. The height is $1$, so you have a recurrence.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                6












                6








                6





                $begingroup$

                Hint: The general rule is that the $n$-volume of a simplex is $frac 1n$ times the $ (n-1)$ volume of the base times the height, which you can prove by integration. The height is $1$, so you have a recurrence.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Hint: The general rule is that the $n$-volume of a simplex is $frac 1n$ times the $ (n-1)$ volume of the base times the height, which you can prove by integration. The height is $1$, so you have a recurrence.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Apr 26 '14 at 0:56









                Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

                297k23198371




                297k23198371























                    4












                    $begingroup$

                    Try using induction. $T_{1}$ is just in the interval $[0,1]$, which has volume (length) $1$. $T_{2}$ is a right triangle with volume (area) $1/2$. Now imagine the case for $n=3$. When we slice the tetrahedron $T_{3}$ at some height $zin[0,1]$, we get a cross section that looks like $T_{2}$. But as $z$ gets bigger, the cross section gets smaller. Try to convince yourself that in general we have
                    $$
                    v(T_{n})=int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^{n-1}v(T_{n-1}),mathrm{d}x=frac{1}{n}v(T_{n-1})
                    $$
                    Then, using the fact that $v(T_{1})=1$, we have $v(T_{n})=1/n!$. Note that we scale by $(1-x)^{n-1}$ instead of by $1-x$ because it is the linear dimensions of the $T_{n-1}$ slice that scale by $1-x$, which translates to the $mathbb{R}^{n-1}$ volume of the slice scaling by $(1-x)^{n-1}$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Thanks Ben! I have one question. Is there a way to solve this problem using triple integrals? and maybe a change of variables?
                      $endgroup$
                      – user145801
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:03










                    • $begingroup$
                      Unfortunately I answered too hastily and this approach is wrong! I apologize. I believe Ross' answer is correct. For $T_{3}$ the integral would be $int_{0}^{1}int_{0}^{1-z}int_{0}^{1-(y+z)}1 , mathrm{d} x , mathrm{d} y , mathrm{d} z$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ben Whitney
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:14








                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      I have fixed my response, which is now a more fleshed out version of Ross'.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ben Whitney
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:26
















                    4












                    $begingroup$

                    Try using induction. $T_{1}$ is just in the interval $[0,1]$, which has volume (length) $1$. $T_{2}$ is a right triangle with volume (area) $1/2$. Now imagine the case for $n=3$. When we slice the tetrahedron $T_{3}$ at some height $zin[0,1]$, we get a cross section that looks like $T_{2}$. But as $z$ gets bigger, the cross section gets smaller. Try to convince yourself that in general we have
                    $$
                    v(T_{n})=int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^{n-1}v(T_{n-1}),mathrm{d}x=frac{1}{n}v(T_{n-1})
                    $$
                    Then, using the fact that $v(T_{1})=1$, we have $v(T_{n})=1/n!$. Note that we scale by $(1-x)^{n-1}$ instead of by $1-x$ because it is the linear dimensions of the $T_{n-1}$ slice that scale by $1-x$, which translates to the $mathbb{R}^{n-1}$ volume of the slice scaling by $(1-x)^{n-1}$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      Thanks Ben! I have one question. Is there a way to solve this problem using triple integrals? and maybe a change of variables?
                      $endgroup$
                      – user145801
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:03










                    • $begingroup$
                      Unfortunately I answered too hastily and this approach is wrong! I apologize. I believe Ross' answer is correct. For $T_{3}$ the integral would be $int_{0}^{1}int_{0}^{1-z}int_{0}^{1-(y+z)}1 , mathrm{d} x , mathrm{d} y , mathrm{d} z$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ben Whitney
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:14








                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      I have fixed my response, which is now a more fleshed out version of Ross'.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ben Whitney
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:26














                    4












                    4








                    4





                    $begingroup$

                    Try using induction. $T_{1}$ is just in the interval $[0,1]$, which has volume (length) $1$. $T_{2}$ is a right triangle with volume (area) $1/2$. Now imagine the case for $n=3$. When we slice the tetrahedron $T_{3}$ at some height $zin[0,1]$, we get a cross section that looks like $T_{2}$. But as $z$ gets bigger, the cross section gets smaller. Try to convince yourself that in general we have
                    $$
                    v(T_{n})=int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^{n-1}v(T_{n-1}),mathrm{d}x=frac{1}{n}v(T_{n-1})
                    $$
                    Then, using the fact that $v(T_{1})=1$, we have $v(T_{n})=1/n!$. Note that we scale by $(1-x)^{n-1}$ instead of by $1-x$ because it is the linear dimensions of the $T_{n-1}$ slice that scale by $1-x$, which translates to the $mathbb{R}^{n-1}$ volume of the slice scaling by $(1-x)^{n-1}$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer











                    $endgroup$



                    Try using induction. $T_{1}$ is just in the interval $[0,1]$, which has volume (length) $1$. $T_{2}$ is a right triangle with volume (area) $1/2$. Now imagine the case for $n=3$. When we slice the tetrahedron $T_{3}$ at some height $zin[0,1]$, we get a cross section that looks like $T_{2}$. But as $z$ gets bigger, the cross section gets smaller. Try to convince yourself that in general we have
                    $$
                    v(T_{n})=int_{0}^{1}(1-x)^{n-1}v(T_{n-1}),mathrm{d}x=frac{1}{n}v(T_{n-1})
                    $$
                    Then, using the fact that $v(T_{1})=1$, we have $v(T_{n})=1/n!$. Note that we scale by $(1-x)^{n-1}$ instead of by $1-x$ because it is the linear dimensions of the $T_{n-1}$ slice that scale by $1-x$, which translates to the $mathbb{R}^{n-1}$ volume of the slice scaling by $(1-x)^{n-1}$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Apr 26 '14 at 3:49









                    Alexander Gruber

                    20.1k25102172




                    20.1k25102172










                    answered Apr 26 '14 at 0:59









                    Ben WhitneyBen Whitney

                    697412




                    697412












                    • $begingroup$
                      Thanks Ben! I have one question. Is there a way to solve this problem using triple integrals? and maybe a change of variables?
                      $endgroup$
                      – user145801
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:03










                    • $begingroup$
                      Unfortunately I answered too hastily and this approach is wrong! I apologize. I believe Ross' answer is correct. For $T_{3}$ the integral would be $int_{0}^{1}int_{0}^{1-z}int_{0}^{1-(y+z)}1 , mathrm{d} x , mathrm{d} y , mathrm{d} z$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ben Whitney
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:14








                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      I have fixed my response, which is now a more fleshed out version of Ross'.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ben Whitney
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:26


















                    • $begingroup$
                      Thanks Ben! I have one question. Is there a way to solve this problem using triple integrals? and maybe a change of variables?
                      $endgroup$
                      – user145801
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:03










                    • $begingroup$
                      Unfortunately I answered too hastily and this approach is wrong! I apologize. I believe Ross' answer is correct. For $T_{3}$ the integral would be $int_{0}^{1}int_{0}^{1-z}int_{0}^{1-(y+z)}1 , mathrm{d} x , mathrm{d} y , mathrm{d} z$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ben Whitney
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:14








                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      I have fixed my response, which is now a more fleshed out version of Ross'.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Ben Whitney
                      Apr 26 '14 at 1:26
















                    $begingroup$
                    Thanks Ben! I have one question. Is there a way to solve this problem using triple integrals? and maybe a change of variables?
                    $endgroup$
                    – user145801
                    Apr 26 '14 at 1:03




                    $begingroup$
                    Thanks Ben! I have one question. Is there a way to solve this problem using triple integrals? and maybe a change of variables?
                    $endgroup$
                    – user145801
                    Apr 26 '14 at 1:03












                    $begingroup$
                    Unfortunately I answered too hastily and this approach is wrong! I apologize. I believe Ross' answer is correct. For $T_{3}$ the integral would be $int_{0}^{1}int_{0}^{1-z}int_{0}^{1-(y+z)}1 , mathrm{d} x , mathrm{d} y , mathrm{d} z$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Ben Whitney
                    Apr 26 '14 at 1:14






                    $begingroup$
                    Unfortunately I answered too hastily and this approach is wrong! I apologize. I believe Ross' answer is correct. For $T_{3}$ the integral would be $int_{0}^{1}int_{0}^{1-z}int_{0}^{1-(y+z)}1 , mathrm{d} x , mathrm{d} y , mathrm{d} z$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Ben Whitney
                    Apr 26 '14 at 1:14






                    1




                    1




                    $begingroup$
                    I have fixed my response, which is now a more fleshed out version of Ross'.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Ben Whitney
                    Apr 26 '14 at 1:26




                    $begingroup$
                    I have fixed my response, which is now a more fleshed out version of Ross'.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Ben Whitney
                    Apr 26 '14 at 1:26


















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