Automorphisms of a Cyclic Group
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To show that,
$operatorname{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})cong (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times.$
What I feel is that if we show that "any automorphism $phi:mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}longrightarrowmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is of the form $phi_a([k]_n):=[ak]_n$ for some $ainmathbb{Z}$ such that gcd$(a,n)=1.$ then we are done.
But I am not sure how to do this?
Thanks in advance.
abstract-algebra group-theory automorphism-group
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
To show that,
$operatorname{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})cong (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times.$
What I feel is that if we show that "any automorphism $phi:mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}longrightarrowmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is of the form $phi_a([k]_n):=[ak]_n$ for some $ainmathbb{Z}$ such that gcd$(a,n)=1.$ then we are done.
But I am not sure how to do this?
Thanks in advance.
abstract-algebra group-theory automorphism-group
You have all the parts to prove your assertion.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 16:31
Can you think of a map from $(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times$ to $mathrm{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})$? The first one that you can think of is an isomorphism: you just need to prove it. That it's a homomorphism is easy, as is injectivity. Surjectivity is slightly harder, and is essentially what's in your thought process. As a hint for that, consider where $varphi$ sends $[1]_n$.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:50
As for LaTeX on here: see here.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:51
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
To show that,
$operatorname{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})cong (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times.$
What I feel is that if we show that "any automorphism $phi:mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}longrightarrowmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is of the form $phi_a([k]_n):=[ak]_n$ for some $ainmathbb{Z}$ such that gcd$(a,n)=1.$ then we are done.
But I am not sure how to do this?
Thanks in advance.
abstract-algebra group-theory automorphism-group
To show that,
$operatorname{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})cong (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times.$
What I feel is that if we show that "any automorphism $phi:mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}longrightarrowmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is of the form $phi_a([k]_n):=[ak]_n$ for some $ainmathbb{Z}$ such that gcd$(a,n)=1.$ then we are done.
But I am not sure how to do this?
Thanks in advance.
abstract-algebra group-theory automorphism-group
abstract-algebra group-theory automorphism-group
edited Nov 25 at 17:13
amWhy
191k28223439
191k28223439
asked Nov 25 at 16:14
WhatsDUI
317112
317112
You have all the parts to prove your assertion.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 16:31
Can you think of a map from $(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times$ to $mathrm{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})$? The first one that you can think of is an isomorphism: you just need to prove it. That it's a homomorphism is easy, as is injectivity. Surjectivity is slightly harder, and is essentially what's in your thought process. As a hint for that, consider where $varphi$ sends $[1]_n$.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:50
As for LaTeX on here: see here.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:51
add a comment |
You have all the parts to prove your assertion.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 16:31
Can you think of a map from $(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times$ to $mathrm{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})$? The first one that you can think of is an isomorphism: you just need to prove it. That it's a homomorphism is easy, as is injectivity. Surjectivity is slightly harder, and is essentially what's in your thought process. As a hint for that, consider where $varphi$ sends $[1]_n$.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:50
As for LaTeX on here: see here.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:51
You have all the parts to prove your assertion.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 16:31
You have all the parts to prove your assertion.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 16:31
Can you think of a map from $(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times$ to $mathrm{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})$? The first one that you can think of is an isomorphism: you just need to prove it. That it's a homomorphism is easy, as is injectivity. Surjectivity is slightly harder, and is essentially what's in your thought process. As a hint for that, consider where $varphi$ sends $[1]_n$.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:50
Can you think of a map from $(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times$ to $mathrm{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})$? The first one that you can think of is an isomorphism: you just need to prove it. That it's a homomorphism is easy, as is injectivity. Surjectivity is slightly harder, and is essentially what's in your thought process. As a hint for that, consider where $varphi$ sends $[1]_n$.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:50
As for LaTeX on here: see here.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:51
As for LaTeX on here: see here.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:51
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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2
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$mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is cyclic generated by $1$. So an isomorphism $phi$ is completely determined by what 1 gets map to. Because suppose $phi(1)=k$ then $phi(m)=phi(1+1+1+...+1)=phi(1)+phi(1)+...+phi(1)= m*k$. Also, you need to make sure $0$ is the only element that gets map to $0$ as we have a isomorphism not a homomorphism. So you can't have $f(1)=k$ where $k$ is a zero divisor as then f(z)=zk=0 for some $z neq 0$. Which means $f(1)$ has to be invertible. Now you can check that $alpha :Aut(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}) rightarrow (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^*$ by $alpha(f)=f(1)$ is an isomorphism.
Automorphism ring is a way to construct ring from groups. you can check that the reason why multiplication of two negative numbers is positive is because the ring of integers is actually automorphism of the abelian additive group $mathbb{Z}$. Because when you compose $f,g$ where $f(1)=-k$(sends all positive to negative),$g(1)=-n$(sends all positive to negative and vice-versa), you get that the composition of the two map sends all positive to all positive. Hope I got it right.
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
$mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is cyclic generated by $1$. So an isomorphism $phi$ is completely determined by what 1 gets map to. Because suppose $phi(1)=k$ then $phi(m)=phi(1+1+1+...+1)=phi(1)+phi(1)+...+phi(1)= m*k$. Also, you need to make sure $0$ is the only element that gets map to $0$ as we have a isomorphism not a homomorphism. So you can't have $f(1)=k$ where $k$ is a zero divisor as then f(z)=zk=0 for some $z neq 0$. Which means $f(1)$ has to be invertible. Now you can check that $alpha :Aut(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}) rightarrow (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^*$ by $alpha(f)=f(1)$ is an isomorphism.
Automorphism ring is a way to construct ring from groups. you can check that the reason why multiplication of two negative numbers is positive is because the ring of integers is actually automorphism of the abelian additive group $mathbb{Z}$. Because when you compose $f,g$ where $f(1)=-k$(sends all positive to negative),$g(1)=-n$(sends all positive to negative and vice-versa), you get that the composition of the two map sends all positive to all positive. Hope I got it right.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
$mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is cyclic generated by $1$. So an isomorphism $phi$ is completely determined by what 1 gets map to. Because suppose $phi(1)=k$ then $phi(m)=phi(1+1+1+...+1)=phi(1)+phi(1)+...+phi(1)= m*k$. Also, you need to make sure $0$ is the only element that gets map to $0$ as we have a isomorphism not a homomorphism. So you can't have $f(1)=k$ where $k$ is a zero divisor as then f(z)=zk=0 for some $z neq 0$. Which means $f(1)$ has to be invertible. Now you can check that $alpha :Aut(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}) rightarrow (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^*$ by $alpha(f)=f(1)$ is an isomorphism.
Automorphism ring is a way to construct ring from groups. you can check that the reason why multiplication of two negative numbers is positive is because the ring of integers is actually automorphism of the abelian additive group $mathbb{Z}$. Because when you compose $f,g$ where $f(1)=-k$(sends all positive to negative),$g(1)=-n$(sends all positive to negative and vice-versa), you get that the composition of the two map sends all positive to all positive. Hope I got it right.
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
$mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is cyclic generated by $1$. So an isomorphism $phi$ is completely determined by what 1 gets map to. Because suppose $phi(1)=k$ then $phi(m)=phi(1+1+1+...+1)=phi(1)+phi(1)+...+phi(1)= m*k$. Also, you need to make sure $0$ is the only element that gets map to $0$ as we have a isomorphism not a homomorphism. So you can't have $f(1)=k$ where $k$ is a zero divisor as then f(z)=zk=0 for some $z neq 0$. Which means $f(1)$ has to be invertible. Now you can check that $alpha :Aut(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}) rightarrow (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^*$ by $alpha(f)=f(1)$ is an isomorphism.
Automorphism ring is a way to construct ring from groups. you can check that the reason why multiplication of two negative numbers is positive is because the ring of integers is actually automorphism of the abelian additive group $mathbb{Z}$. Because when you compose $f,g$ where $f(1)=-k$(sends all positive to negative),$g(1)=-n$(sends all positive to negative and vice-versa), you get that the composition of the two map sends all positive to all positive. Hope I got it right.
$mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ is cyclic generated by $1$. So an isomorphism $phi$ is completely determined by what 1 gets map to. Because suppose $phi(1)=k$ then $phi(m)=phi(1+1+1+...+1)=phi(1)+phi(1)+...+phi(1)= m*k$. Also, you need to make sure $0$ is the only element that gets map to $0$ as we have a isomorphism not a homomorphism. So you can't have $f(1)=k$ where $k$ is a zero divisor as then f(z)=zk=0 for some $z neq 0$. Which means $f(1)$ has to be invertible. Now you can check that $alpha :Aut(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}) rightarrow (mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^*$ by $alpha(f)=f(1)$ is an isomorphism.
Automorphism ring is a way to construct ring from groups. you can check that the reason why multiplication of two negative numbers is positive is because the ring of integers is actually automorphism of the abelian additive group $mathbb{Z}$. Because when you compose $f,g$ where $f(1)=-k$(sends all positive to negative),$g(1)=-n$(sends all positive to negative and vice-versa), you get that the composition of the two map sends all positive to all positive. Hope I got it right.
answered Nov 25 at 17:00
mathnoob
1,562320
1,562320
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You have all the parts to prove your assertion.
– Joel Pereira
Nov 25 at 16:31
Can you think of a map from $(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})^times$ to $mathrm{Aut}(mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z})$? The first one that you can think of is an isomorphism: you just need to prove it. That it's a homomorphism is easy, as is injectivity. Surjectivity is slightly harder, and is essentially what's in your thought process. As a hint for that, consider where $varphi$ sends $[1]_n$.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:50
As for LaTeX on here: see here.
– user3482749
Nov 25 at 16:51