If the partial limits of two sequences are equals then the sequences equals











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I didn't understand something about partial limits of sequences:



Say there are two series - $a_n , b_n$. Its unknown if they converge.



Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?
What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?
The first one seem wrong to me but I can't find an example to contradict it.



What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N : a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?



Just started learning about limits last month,



Thank you in advance for your answer.










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  • Please edit the title to something more descriptive :)
    – Shaun
    Nov 26 at 12:59















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I didn't understand something about partial limits of sequences:



Say there are two series - $a_n , b_n$. Its unknown if they converge.



Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?
What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?
The first one seem wrong to me but I can't find an example to contradict it.



What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N : a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?



Just started learning about limits last month,



Thank you in advance for your answer.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Please edit the title to something more descriptive :)
    – Shaun
    Nov 26 at 12:59













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I didn't understand something about partial limits of sequences:



Say there are two series - $a_n , b_n$. Its unknown if they converge.



Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?
What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?
The first one seem wrong to me but I can't find an example to contradict it.



What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N : a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?



Just started learning about limits last month,



Thank you in advance for your answer.










share|cite|improve this question















I didn't understand something about partial limits of sequences:



Say there are two series - $a_n , b_n$. Its unknown if they converge.



Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?
What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?
The first one seem wrong to me but I can't find an example to contradict it.



What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N : a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?



Just started learning about limits last month,



Thank you in advance for your answer.







calculus sequences-and-series limits






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edited Nov 26 at 13:02

























asked Nov 26 at 12:44









Dexa sh

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32












  • Please edit the title to something more descriptive :)
    – Shaun
    Nov 26 at 12:59


















  • Please edit the title to something more descriptive :)
    – Shaun
    Nov 26 at 12:59
















Please edit the title to something more descriptive :)
– Shaun
Nov 26 at 12:59




Please edit the title to something more descriptive :)
– Shaun
Nov 26 at 12:59










1 Answer
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Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?




No, not at all. For example, the limits (and therefore all partial limits) of $left(frac{1}{n}right)$ and $(0)$ coincide, but the sequences clearly are not equal.




What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?




Yes, this is obvious. The (partial) limits of $(a_n)$ are the partial limits of $(a_n)$.




What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N:a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?




No: for the first, the counterexample above still works. For the second, yes, you can change the first finitely-many terms of a sequence without changing its limiting behaviour.






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  • Thank you for your answer!
    – Dexa sh
    Nov 26 at 13:16











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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oldest

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votes








up vote
0
down vote



accepted











Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?




No, not at all. For example, the limits (and therefore all partial limits) of $left(frac{1}{n}right)$ and $(0)$ coincide, but the sequences clearly are not equal.




What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?




Yes, this is obvious. The (partial) limits of $(a_n)$ are the partial limits of $(a_n)$.




What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N:a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?




No: for the first, the counterexample above still works. For the second, yes, you can change the first finitely-many terms of a sequence without changing its limiting behaviour.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your answer!
    – Dexa sh
    Nov 26 at 13:16















up vote
0
down vote



accepted











Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?




No, not at all. For example, the limits (and therefore all partial limits) of $left(frac{1}{n}right)$ and $(0)$ coincide, but the sequences clearly are not equal.




What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?




Yes, this is obvious. The (partial) limits of $(a_n)$ are the partial limits of $(a_n)$.




What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N:a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?




No: for the first, the counterexample above still works. For the second, yes, you can change the first finitely-many terms of a sequence without changing its limiting behaviour.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you for your answer!
    – Dexa sh
    Nov 26 at 13:16













up vote
0
down vote



accepted







up vote
0
down vote



accepted







Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?




No, not at all. For example, the limits (and therefore all partial limits) of $left(frac{1}{n}right)$ and $(0)$ coincide, but the sequences clearly are not equal.




What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?




Yes, this is obvious. The (partial) limits of $(a_n)$ are the partial limits of $(a_n)$.




What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N:a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?




No: for the first, the counterexample above still works. For the second, yes, you can change the first finitely-many terms of a sequence without changing its limiting behaviour.






share|cite|improve this answer













Is it right to say that if the partial limits of the two series are equal to each other then the series are equal ?




No, not at all. For example, the limits (and therefore all partial limits) of $left(frac{1}{n}right)$ and $(0)$ coincide, but the sequences clearly are not equal.




What about the other way around - if the series are equal then the partial limits are equal?




Yes, this is obvious. The (partial) limits of $(a_n)$ are the partial limits of $(a_n)$.




What about if they are only equal from a certain point? meaning - There is an $N$ that for every $n>N:a_n=b_n$ ? Does it changes the answer for any of the claims?




No: for the first, the counterexample above still works. For the second, yes, you can change the first finitely-many terms of a sequence without changing its limiting behaviour.







share|cite|improve this answer












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answered Nov 26 at 13:11









user3482749

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2,096414












  • Thank you for your answer!
    – Dexa sh
    Nov 26 at 13:16


















  • Thank you for your answer!
    – Dexa sh
    Nov 26 at 13:16
















Thank you for your answer!
– Dexa sh
Nov 26 at 13:16




Thank you for your answer!
– Dexa sh
Nov 26 at 13:16


















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