Is there any reason not to use the notation $p_{X mid Y = y}(x)$?











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Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are discrete random variables with PMFs $p_X$ and $p_Y$. The conditional probability mass function of $X$ given that $Y = y$ is often denoted $p_{X mid Y}(x mid y)$ (assuming that $p_Y(y) > 0$). However, is there any reason not to use the notation $p_{X mid Y = y}(x)$ instead? I find the latter notation to be much more clear.



Similarly, if $X$ and $Y$ are jointly continuous random variables with PDFs $f_X$ and $f_Y$, the conditional probability density of $X$ given that $Y = y$ is often denoted $f_{X|Y}(x mid y)$ (assuming that $f_Y(y) > 0$). Is there any reason not to use the notation $f_{X mid Y = y}(x)$ instead? It seems more clear, but perhaps I am missing some subtle point.



Are there any textbooks which use the notation $f_{X mid Y=y}(x)$?










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  • It is fine to use the latter notation since the argument is $x$.
    – StubbornAtom
    Nov 22 at 6:12










  • Actually I'd almost prefer just dispensing with the '$=y$' bit altogether but definitely like your suggestion (maybe ppl do use it? Have generally seen the more cumbersome version...)
    – Mehness
    Nov 22 at 6:24










  • I remember I have seen it (not sure in text/notes), and I even write $f_{X|Y = y}(x mid y)$...
    – BGM
    Nov 22 at 6:47






  • 1




    I use this notation myself.
    – Gabriel Romon
    Nov 22 at 14:31















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are discrete random variables with PMFs $p_X$ and $p_Y$. The conditional probability mass function of $X$ given that $Y = y$ is often denoted $p_{X mid Y}(x mid y)$ (assuming that $p_Y(y) > 0$). However, is there any reason not to use the notation $p_{X mid Y = y}(x)$ instead? I find the latter notation to be much more clear.



Similarly, if $X$ and $Y$ are jointly continuous random variables with PDFs $f_X$ and $f_Y$, the conditional probability density of $X$ given that $Y = y$ is often denoted $f_{X|Y}(x mid y)$ (assuming that $f_Y(y) > 0$). Is there any reason not to use the notation $f_{X mid Y = y}(x)$ instead? It seems more clear, but perhaps I am missing some subtle point.



Are there any textbooks which use the notation $f_{X mid Y=y}(x)$?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • It is fine to use the latter notation since the argument is $x$.
    – StubbornAtom
    Nov 22 at 6:12










  • Actually I'd almost prefer just dispensing with the '$=y$' bit altogether but definitely like your suggestion (maybe ppl do use it? Have generally seen the more cumbersome version...)
    – Mehness
    Nov 22 at 6:24










  • I remember I have seen it (not sure in text/notes), and I even write $f_{X|Y = y}(x mid y)$...
    – BGM
    Nov 22 at 6:47






  • 1




    I use this notation myself.
    – Gabriel Romon
    Nov 22 at 14:31













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are discrete random variables with PMFs $p_X$ and $p_Y$. The conditional probability mass function of $X$ given that $Y = y$ is often denoted $p_{X mid Y}(x mid y)$ (assuming that $p_Y(y) > 0$). However, is there any reason not to use the notation $p_{X mid Y = y}(x)$ instead? I find the latter notation to be much more clear.



Similarly, if $X$ and $Y$ are jointly continuous random variables with PDFs $f_X$ and $f_Y$, the conditional probability density of $X$ given that $Y = y$ is often denoted $f_{X|Y}(x mid y)$ (assuming that $f_Y(y) > 0$). Is there any reason not to use the notation $f_{X mid Y = y}(x)$ instead? It seems more clear, but perhaps I am missing some subtle point.



Are there any textbooks which use the notation $f_{X mid Y=y}(x)$?










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are discrete random variables with PMFs $p_X$ and $p_Y$. The conditional probability mass function of $X$ given that $Y = y$ is often denoted $p_{X mid Y}(x mid y)$ (assuming that $p_Y(y) > 0$). However, is there any reason not to use the notation $p_{X mid Y = y}(x)$ instead? I find the latter notation to be much more clear.



Similarly, if $X$ and $Y$ are jointly continuous random variables with PDFs $f_X$ and $f_Y$, the conditional probability density of $X$ given that $Y = y$ is often denoted $f_{X|Y}(x mid y)$ (assuming that $f_Y(y) > 0$). Is there any reason not to use the notation $f_{X mid Y = y}(x)$ instead? It seems more clear, but perhaps I am missing some subtle point.



Are there any textbooks which use the notation $f_{X mid Y=y}(x)$?







probability notation






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Nov 22 at 13:29

























asked Nov 22 at 6:06









eternalGoldenBraid

697314




697314












  • It is fine to use the latter notation since the argument is $x$.
    – StubbornAtom
    Nov 22 at 6:12










  • Actually I'd almost prefer just dispensing with the '$=y$' bit altogether but definitely like your suggestion (maybe ppl do use it? Have generally seen the more cumbersome version...)
    – Mehness
    Nov 22 at 6:24










  • I remember I have seen it (not sure in text/notes), and I even write $f_{X|Y = y}(x mid y)$...
    – BGM
    Nov 22 at 6:47






  • 1




    I use this notation myself.
    – Gabriel Romon
    Nov 22 at 14:31


















  • It is fine to use the latter notation since the argument is $x$.
    – StubbornAtom
    Nov 22 at 6:12










  • Actually I'd almost prefer just dispensing with the '$=y$' bit altogether but definitely like your suggestion (maybe ppl do use it? Have generally seen the more cumbersome version...)
    – Mehness
    Nov 22 at 6:24










  • I remember I have seen it (not sure in text/notes), and I even write $f_{X|Y = y}(x mid y)$...
    – BGM
    Nov 22 at 6:47






  • 1




    I use this notation myself.
    – Gabriel Romon
    Nov 22 at 14:31
















It is fine to use the latter notation since the argument is $x$.
– StubbornAtom
Nov 22 at 6:12




It is fine to use the latter notation since the argument is $x$.
– StubbornAtom
Nov 22 at 6:12












Actually I'd almost prefer just dispensing with the '$=y$' bit altogether but definitely like your suggestion (maybe ppl do use it? Have generally seen the more cumbersome version...)
– Mehness
Nov 22 at 6:24




Actually I'd almost prefer just dispensing with the '$=y$' bit altogether but definitely like your suggestion (maybe ppl do use it? Have generally seen the more cumbersome version...)
– Mehness
Nov 22 at 6:24












I remember I have seen it (not sure in text/notes), and I even write $f_{X|Y = y}(x mid y)$...
– BGM
Nov 22 at 6:47




I remember I have seen it (not sure in text/notes), and I even write $f_{X|Y = y}(x mid y)$...
– BGM
Nov 22 at 6:47




1




1




I use this notation myself.
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 22 at 14:31




I use this notation myself.
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 22 at 14:31















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