intermediate field $mathbb{F_{p}} subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}} subset overline{mathbb{F_{p}}}$












1












$begingroup$


I have trouble solving the following problems:



Let $p$ be a prime number and $K$ a field with characteristic $p$. Let $overline{K} supset K$ be the algebraic closure of $K$.



i) Let $n>0$ be a natural number. Prove that the polynomial $f(X)=X^{p^{n}}-X$ has exactly $p^{n}$ different roots in $overline{K}$.



ii) Now consider $K=mathbb{F_{p}}$ embedded into the algebraic closure $overline{ mathbb{F_{p}}}supset mathbb{F_{p}}$. Define $mathbb{F_{p^{n}}}:={xin overline{ mathbb{F_{p}}}| x^{p^{n}}=x}$. Show that $mathbb{F_{p}} subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}} subset overline{mathbb{F_{p}}}$ is an intermediate field.



iii) Prove that $mathbb{F_{p}}subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}}$ is a normal field extension.



i) I know that I can write $X^{p^{n}}-X$ as $X(X^{p^{n-1}}-1)$ and then I have to find the remaining $p^{n-1}$ roots but I'm not sure how.



Thanks for any help in advance.



Clarification of used definitons:



The characteristic of a ring is the smallest number such that $1+...+1=0$.



Let $K,M$ be fields, the ring homomorphism $a:K to M$ is called embedding.



Let $Ksubset L$ be a field extension of the field $K$. An intermediate field is a field $M$ such that $Ksubset M subset L$ and $M$ is a subfiled of $L$.



Let $K$ be a field and $K subset overline{K}$ be the algebraic closure. The intermediate field $K subset L subsetoverline{K}$ is called normal if the embedding $b: L to overline{K}$ satisfies $b(L) subset L$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I have trouble solving the following problems:



    Let $p$ be a prime number and $K$ a field with characteristic $p$. Let $overline{K} supset K$ be the algebraic closure of $K$.



    i) Let $n>0$ be a natural number. Prove that the polynomial $f(X)=X^{p^{n}}-X$ has exactly $p^{n}$ different roots in $overline{K}$.



    ii) Now consider $K=mathbb{F_{p}}$ embedded into the algebraic closure $overline{ mathbb{F_{p}}}supset mathbb{F_{p}}$. Define $mathbb{F_{p^{n}}}:={xin overline{ mathbb{F_{p}}}| x^{p^{n}}=x}$. Show that $mathbb{F_{p}} subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}} subset overline{mathbb{F_{p}}}$ is an intermediate field.



    iii) Prove that $mathbb{F_{p}}subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}}$ is a normal field extension.



    i) I know that I can write $X^{p^{n}}-X$ as $X(X^{p^{n-1}}-1)$ and then I have to find the remaining $p^{n-1}$ roots but I'm not sure how.



    Thanks for any help in advance.



    Clarification of used definitons:



    The characteristic of a ring is the smallest number such that $1+...+1=0$.



    Let $K,M$ be fields, the ring homomorphism $a:K to M$ is called embedding.



    Let $Ksubset L$ be a field extension of the field $K$. An intermediate field is a field $M$ such that $Ksubset M subset L$ and $M$ is a subfiled of $L$.



    Let $K$ be a field and $K subset overline{K}$ be the algebraic closure. The intermediate field $K subset L subsetoverline{K}$ is called normal if the embedding $b: L to overline{K}$ satisfies $b(L) subset L$.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I have trouble solving the following problems:



      Let $p$ be a prime number and $K$ a field with characteristic $p$. Let $overline{K} supset K$ be the algebraic closure of $K$.



      i) Let $n>0$ be a natural number. Prove that the polynomial $f(X)=X^{p^{n}}-X$ has exactly $p^{n}$ different roots in $overline{K}$.



      ii) Now consider $K=mathbb{F_{p}}$ embedded into the algebraic closure $overline{ mathbb{F_{p}}}supset mathbb{F_{p}}$. Define $mathbb{F_{p^{n}}}:={xin overline{ mathbb{F_{p}}}| x^{p^{n}}=x}$. Show that $mathbb{F_{p}} subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}} subset overline{mathbb{F_{p}}}$ is an intermediate field.



      iii) Prove that $mathbb{F_{p}}subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}}$ is a normal field extension.



      i) I know that I can write $X^{p^{n}}-X$ as $X(X^{p^{n-1}}-1)$ and then I have to find the remaining $p^{n-1}$ roots but I'm not sure how.



      Thanks for any help in advance.



      Clarification of used definitons:



      The characteristic of a ring is the smallest number such that $1+...+1=0$.



      Let $K,M$ be fields, the ring homomorphism $a:K to M$ is called embedding.



      Let $Ksubset L$ be a field extension of the field $K$. An intermediate field is a field $M$ such that $Ksubset M subset L$ and $M$ is a subfiled of $L$.



      Let $K$ be a field and $K subset overline{K}$ be the algebraic closure. The intermediate field $K subset L subsetoverline{K}$ is called normal if the embedding $b: L to overline{K}$ satisfies $b(L) subset L$.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I have trouble solving the following problems:



      Let $p$ be a prime number and $K$ a field with characteristic $p$. Let $overline{K} supset K$ be the algebraic closure of $K$.



      i) Let $n>0$ be a natural number. Prove that the polynomial $f(X)=X^{p^{n}}-X$ has exactly $p^{n}$ different roots in $overline{K}$.



      ii) Now consider $K=mathbb{F_{p}}$ embedded into the algebraic closure $overline{ mathbb{F_{p}}}supset mathbb{F_{p}}$. Define $mathbb{F_{p^{n}}}:={xin overline{ mathbb{F_{p}}}| x^{p^{n}}=x}$. Show that $mathbb{F_{p}} subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}} subset overline{mathbb{F_{p}}}$ is an intermediate field.



      iii) Prove that $mathbb{F_{p}}subset mathbb{F_{p^{n}}}$ is a normal field extension.



      i) I know that I can write $X^{p^{n}}-X$ as $X(X^{p^{n-1}}-1)$ and then I have to find the remaining $p^{n-1}$ roots but I'm not sure how.



      Thanks for any help in advance.



      Clarification of used definitons:



      The characteristic of a ring is the smallest number such that $1+...+1=0$.



      Let $K,M$ be fields, the ring homomorphism $a:K to M$ is called embedding.



      Let $Ksubset L$ be a field extension of the field $K$. An intermediate field is a field $M$ such that $Ksubset M subset L$ and $M$ is a subfiled of $L$.



      Let $K$ be a field and $K subset overline{K}$ be the algebraic closure. The intermediate field $K subset L subsetoverline{K}$ is called normal if the embedding $b: L to overline{K}$ satisfies $b(L) subset L$.







      abstract-algebra






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 6 '18 at 22:22







      Manwell

















      asked Dec 6 '18 at 12:21









      ManwellManwell

      114




      114






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          i) The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $-1$, which is coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$. So $X^{p^n}-X$ has no repeated roots.



          ii) You need to prove that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a field containing $Bbb{F}_p$. Since $x^p-x=0$ for all $xin Bbb{F}_p$, $Bbb{F}_psubseteq Bbb{F}_{p^n}$. To show that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under addition, prove the identity $$(X+Y)^{p^n}=X^{p^n}+Y^{p^n}.$$ It is clear that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under multiplication and taking inverses (of non-zero elements).



          iii) If an irreducible polynomial $p(X)inBbb{F}_p[X]$ has a root in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, then $p(X)$ is not coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$, so $p(X)$ must divide $X^{p^n}-X$. Therefore, all roots of $p(X)$ are in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, and this means $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a normal extension of $Bbb{F}_p$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. Why is the derivative -1? And I think we proved that identity after introducing the Frobenius endomorphism in the lecture.
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:12












          • $begingroup$
            The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $p^nX^{p^n-1}-1$, but $p=0$ here.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:28










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. Why is $p=0$ all the sudden? It's supposed to be a prime number. Why are we considering the derivative to begin with?
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:34










          • $begingroup$
            Because your field has characteristic $p$, we have $p=0$ in this field.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:36












          • $begingroup$
            About the derivative, read this pdf.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:37











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          i) The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $-1$, which is coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$. So $X^{p^n}-X$ has no repeated roots.



          ii) You need to prove that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a field containing $Bbb{F}_p$. Since $x^p-x=0$ for all $xin Bbb{F}_p$, $Bbb{F}_psubseteq Bbb{F}_{p^n}$. To show that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under addition, prove the identity $$(X+Y)^{p^n}=X^{p^n}+Y^{p^n}.$$ It is clear that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under multiplication and taking inverses (of non-zero elements).



          iii) If an irreducible polynomial $p(X)inBbb{F}_p[X]$ has a root in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, then $p(X)$ is not coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$, so $p(X)$ must divide $X^{p^n}-X$. Therefore, all roots of $p(X)$ are in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, and this means $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a normal extension of $Bbb{F}_p$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. Why is the derivative -1? And I think we proved that identity after introducing the Frobenius endomorphism in the lecture.
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:12












          • $begingroup$
            The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $p^nX^{p^n-1}-1$, but $p=0$ here.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:28










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. Why is $p=0$ all the sudden? It's supposed to be a prime number. Why are we considering the derivative to begin with?
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:34










          • $begingroup$
            Because your field has characteristic $p$, we have $p=0$ in this field.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:36












          • $begingroup$
            About the derivative, read this pdf.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:37
















          1












          $begingroup$

          i) The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $-1$, which is coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$. So $X^{p^n}-X$ has no repeated roots.



          ii) You need to prove that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a field containing $Bbb{F}_p$. Since $x^p-x=0$ for all $xin Bbb{F}_p$, $Bbb{F}_psubseteq Bbb{F}_{p^n}$. To show that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under addition, prove the identity $$(X+Y)^{p^n}=X^{p^n}+Y^{p^n}.$$ It is clear that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under multiplication and taking inverses (of non-zero elements).



          iii) If an irreducible polynomial $p(X)inBbb{F}_p[X]$ has a root in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, then $p(X)$ is not coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$, so $p(X)$ must divide $X^{p^n}-X$. Therefore, all roots of $p(X)$ are in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, and this means $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a normal extension of $Bbb{F}_p$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. Why is the derivative -1? And I think we proved that identity after introducing the Frobenius endomorphism in the lecture.
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:12












          • $begingroup$
            The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $p^nX^{p^n-1}-1$, but $p=0$ here.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:28










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. Why is $p=0$ all the sudden? It's supposed to be a prime number. Why are we considering the derivative to begin with?
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:34










          • $begingroup$
            Because your field has characteristic $p$, we have $p=0$ in this field.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:36












          • $begingroup$
            About the derivative, read this pdf.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:37














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          i) The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $-1$, which is coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$. So $X^{p^n}-X$ has no repeated roots.



          ii) You need to prove that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a field containing $Bbb{F}_p$. Since $x^p-x=0$ for all $xin Bbb{F}_p$, $Bbb{F}_psubseteq Bbb{F}_{p^n}$. To show that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under addition, prove the identity $$(X+Y)^{p^n}=X^{p^n}+Y^{p^n}.$$ It is clear that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under multiplication and taking inverses (of non-zero elements).



          iii) If an irreducible polynomial $p(X)inBbb{F}_p[X]$ has a root in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, then $p(X)$ is not coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$, so $p(X)$ must divide $X^{p^n}-X$. Therefore, all roots of $p(X)$ are in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, and this means $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a normal extension of $Bbb{F}_p$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          i) The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $-1$, which is coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$. So $X^{p^n}-X$ has no repeated roots.



          ii) You need to prove that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a field containing $Bbb{F}_p$. Since $x^p-x=0$ for all $xin Bbb{F}_p$, $Bbb{F}_psubseteq Bbb{F}_{p^n}$. To show that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under addition, prove the identity $$(X+Y)^{p^n}=X^{p^n}+Y^{p^n}.$$ It is clear that $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is closed under multiplication and taking inverses (of non-zero elements).



          iii) If an irreducible polynomial $p(X)inBbb{F}_p[X]$ has a root in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, then $p(X)$ is not coprime to $X^{p^n}-X$, so $p(X)$ must divide $X^{p^n}-X$. Therefore, all roots of $p(X)$ are in $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$, and this means $Bbb{F}_{p^n}$ is a normal extension of $Bbb{F}_p$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 6 '18 at 13:43







          user593746



















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. Why is the derivative -1? And I think we proved that identity after introducing the Frobenius endomorphism in the lecture.
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:12












          • $begingroup$
            The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $p^nX^{p^n-1}-1$, but $p=0$ here.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:28










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. Why is $p=0$ all the sudden? It's supposed to be a prime number. Why are we considering the derivative to begin with?
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:34










          • $begingroup$
            Because your field has characteristic $p$, we have $p=0$ in this field.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:36












          • $begingroup$
            About the derivative, read this pdf.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:37


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. Why is the derivative -1? And I think we proved that identity after introducing the Frobenius endomorphism in the lecture.
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:12












          • $begingroup$
            The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $p^nX^{p^n-1}-1$, but $p=0$ here.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:28










          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. Why is $p=0$ all the sudden? It's supposed to be a prime number. Why are we considering the derivative to begin with?
            $endgroup$
            – Manwell
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:34










          • $begingroup$
            Because your field has characteristic $p$, we have $p=0$ in this field.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:36












          • $begingroup$
            About the derivative, read this pdf.
            $endgroup$
            – user593746
            Dec 6 '18 at 14:37
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you. Why is the derivative -1? And I think we proved that identity after introducing the Frobenius endomorphism in the lecture.
          $endgroup$
          – Manwell
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:12






          $begingroup$
          Thank you. Why is the derivative -1? And I think we proved that identity after introducing the Frobenius endomorphism in the lecture.
          $endgroup$
          – Manwell
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:12














          $begingroup$
          The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $p^nX^{p^n-1}-1$, but $p=0$ here.
          $endgroup$
          – user593746
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:28




          $begingroup$
          The derivative of $X^{p^n}-X$ is $p^nX^{p^n-1}-1$, but $p=0$ here.
          $endgroup$
          – user593746
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:28












          $begingroup$
          Thanks. Why is $p=0$ all the sudden? It's supposed to be a prime number. Why are we considering the derivative to begin with?
          $endgroup$
          – Manwell
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:34




          $begingroup$
          Thanks. Why is $p=0$ all the sudden? It's supposed to be a prime number. Why are we considering the derivative to begin with?
          $endgroup$
          – Manwell
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:34












          $begingroup$
          Because your field has characteristic $p$, we have $p=0$ in this field.
          $endgroup$
          – user593746
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:36






          $begingroup$
          Because your field has characteristic $p$, we have $p=0$ in this field.
          $endgroup$
          – user593746
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:36














          $begingroup$
          About the derivative, read this pdf.
          $endgroup$
          – user593746
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:37




          $begingroup$
          About the derivative, read this pdf.
          $endgroup$
          – user593746
          Dec 6 '18 at 14:37


















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